USMLE REVIEW 1

 

DANIL HAMMOUDI.MD

SINOE MEDICAL ASSOCIATION

 

 

 

 

ANAT:

dissection of gluteal region to show course of the pudendal nerve

 

 

The pudendal nerve anatomy

Legend:

1. Sacro-spinal ligament
2. Sacro-tuberous ligament
3. Alcock's canal (or pudendal canal) with the pudendal nerve
4. Nerve of the clitoris
5. Perineal branch of the pudendal nerve
6. Anal branch of the pudendal nerve
7. Arcus tendineus fascia pelvis
8. Obturator muscle
9. Piriformis muscle
S2, S3 and S4: sacral roots forming the pudendal nerve

Right gluteal region

  1. Reflected sacrotuberous ligament.
    2. Pudendal nerve entering the ischioanal fossa.

    Just superior to this point the pudendal nerve crossed the ischial spine. Anaesthetizing this nerve and the ilioinguinal nerve anaesthetizes the pudendum.

 

Nerve supply to perineum

Figure 21.1

 

The nerve supply to the perineum originates from three main sources:

1. The Genito-femoral Nerve (L1,L2).

2. The pudendal nerve arises from the anterior rami of the second to fourth sacral roots. These form a trunk before leaving the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen. It passes immediately behind the ischial spine and swings forward to enter the perineum via the lesser sciatic foramen. The nerve passes through the ischiorectal fossa where it gives off its terminal branches. The inferior rectal nerve innervates the external anal sphincter and the perianal skin. The perineal nerve innervates the sphincter urethrae and other muscles of the anterior compartment via a deep branch, and the skin of the perineum poterior to the clitoris via its superficial branch. The dorsal nerve of the clitoris supplies the skin surrounding this structure.

3. The perineal branch of the posterior femoral nerve.

Pudendal Nerve Block

Figure 21.2

The palpating finger is used to locate the ischial spine and sacrospinous ligament per vaginam. The needle is inserted through the vaginal wall, is directed towards the spine and then passed through the sacrospinous ligament. As soon as the needle has passed through the ligament, a loss of resistance is felt. At this point 10mls of local anaesthetic solution (eg 1% Lignocaine with adrenaline) is injected after careful aspiration.

 

Figure 21.3

The perineal approach to pudendal nerve block. This approach is particularly useful when the head is fully engaged.

 


  • A TUMOR IN THE RIGHT JUGULAR FORAMEN =è SHOULDER DROOPè PATRALYSIS OF THE TRAPEZIUS MUSCLE INNERVATED PAR XI

THREE CRANIAL NERVE GO THROUGH THIS FORAMEN:

 

X + IX ==è DYSPHAGIA + HOARSENESS

 

 


Upper extremity:

Cephalic and Basilic veins are the superficial veins of the arm.

Basilic vein is the largest arm vein measuring 6 – 8 mm. Its course is along the medial (ulnar) aspect of the arm from wrist to shoulder. It begins at the dorsum of the hand, crosses the elbow and drains into the brachial vein.

Cephalic vein, measuring 4 – 6 mm, runs along the lateral (radial) aspect of the arm also from the wrist to shoulder emptying into the axillary vein.

 

Although the basilic vein is larger, the cephalic vein is more superficial and easier to dissect out. Therefore it is often the preferred vein for dialysis fistulas or grafts. 

 

Conversely, the cephalic vein may take an acute angle before it enters the axillary vein sometimes making negotiation with a catheter or wire difficult.

Both veins are good access for:

a. peripheral IV's

b. PICC lines

c. arm ports

 

Median vein:

Forms a Y just below the elbow and drains into both the basilic and cephalic veins.

 

Median antecubital vein:

Oblique coursing vein at the elbow that joins the basilic and cephalic veins.

 

 

Deep forearm veins:

These are 2 or 3 veins each that course with and are named like the corresponding arteries of the forearm (radial & ulna).

 

Brachial veins are the deep veins of the upper arm, usually paired and smaller than the superficial veins. They travel in the upper arm parallel to (on either side) the brachial artery and join with the basilic vein to form the axillary vein.

Brachial veins can be used for:

a. PICC lines

b. arm ports

 

Although not universal, many attempt placement of long term venous access between the elbow and the shoulder when using upper extremity veins. This avoids catheter irritation and compression from repetitive flexion at the elbow

 

 

Lower extremity:  

Femoral Vein:

The femoral vein is the continuation of the popliteal vein beginning at the adductor hiatus. It receives the greater saphenous vein and the deep femoral vein. It continues as the external iliac vein at the inguinal ligament.

It usually lies posterolaterally to the femoral artery in the thigh and then moves medially at the groin. In approximately 25% of people the femoral vein is directly posterior to the artery at the groin.

Traditionally, femoral veins are not routinely used for venous access except on an acute temporary basis or when all other sites have been exhausted.

Theoretically,  the proximity to the groin increases the likelihood of contamination and infection. In addition, this location predisposes to catheter kinking and significantly affects ambulation.

Moreover, like other venous access sites, femoral catheters can cause thrombosis. The consequences of thrombosis  may have  greater clinical significance in the larger, dependent, lower extremity.

Despite these caveats, we have begun using this site for dialysis access in those patients with severely limited access and have had reasonable success.

 

 Femoral vein access – potentially more contamination and symptomatic DVT.

 

 

 

 

Chest and Neck:  

Axillary Vein:

The axillary vein begins at the junction of the basilic and brachial veins. It runs medial, anterior and caudal to the axillary artery, to the lateral border of the first rib where it becomes the subclavian vein.

It lies caudal to the lateral half of the clavicle, slightly medial to and partly overlies the axillary artery. The artery and vein are within the axillary fascia. The brachial plexus (nerves) runs between artery and vein.

Valves may be present near the junction of the brachial and basilic veins.

Axillary vein access can be utilized to "prevent pinch off syndrome". This results from the more classical medial subclavian vein approach for central venous access (see complications for more information). If done from a lateral approach with sonography, axillary vein access can also decrease the incidence of pneumothorax.

The down side is that this approach, however, is that it still may incite the same amount of stenosis and thrombosis as the subclavian approach.

 

Subclavian Vein:

The subclavian vein runs from the lateral border of the first rib to the sternal end of the clavicle where it joins the internal jugular vein and becomes the brachiocephalic vein.

It lies posterior and superior to the subclavian artery.

A pair of valves is not uncommon at the termination of the subclavian vein.

The subclavian vein becomes the axillary vein at the lateral margin of the first rib.

The thoracic ducts enter the superior aspect of the subclavian vein near its junction with the internal jugular vein.

Access can be achieved via the anatomical landmark approach or with imaging. Using landmarks, an access needle is advanced medially along a horizontal plane beneath the medial 2/3’s of the clavicle towards the suprasternal notch of the manubrium.

As detailed under the procedure section, it is safer and more accurate to use imaging. In the case of the subclavian vein, venography or ultrasound can be utilized. Imaging permits a more lateral approach (axillary vein) which decreases the chance for pneumothorax and catheter compression from pinch off syndrome.

Additionally, structures such as the Phrenic nerve, brachial plexus and pleural cupola all lie within close proximity to the subclavian vein.

 

 Subclavian vein access is predisposed to both acute and chronic complications. (see complications)

We avoid this approach unless absolutely necessary.

In one report, using dialysis catheters, the complication rate for subclavian vein access was 44.2% higher than the internal jugular vein route. Anatomically, the right jugular provides a straight shot to the right atrium.  The right subclavian approach forces the catheter to abut up against multiple 'pressure points' in the vein.  In theory, the constant irritation from the catheter at these points could result in intimal hyperplasia and possibly explain the early failure of the sublavian access reported in the literature.

 

 

The pneumothorax rate is also higher from this approach as compared with the internal jugular vein. In addition, the infection rate for the subclavian vein route was more than twice the internal jugular vein.

 

Axillary and subclavian veins can be used for:

a. PICC line

b. Non-tunneled CVC

c. Tunneled CVC

d. Chest ports

 

Internal jugular vein (IJ):

The internal jugular vein exits the jugular foramen of the skull base and courses inferiorly along with the carotid artery and vagus nerve The IJ begins posterior to the carotid artery at the cranium but spirals around the artery and ends up anteriorly at the level of the chest. It lies between the two heads of the sternocleidomastoid muscle in the mid portion and finally lies posterior to the clavicular head of the muscle. It joins with the subclavian vein to become the brachiocephalic vein.

                                     

                                                  

                                 

 

The IJ, especially the right side has become the preferred site for long term CVC’s.

 

 Reasons for (R) IJ preference for CVC’s:

a. superficial position

b. large size

c. high flow

d. greater distance from the lung

e. straight course to the SVC (catheter less likely to irritate venous endothelium)

f. less malposition

g. less stenosis and occlusion as opposed to the subclavian vein

f. direct compression of adjacent artery is easier if inadvertently punctured

 

Specifically in dialysis patients, internal jugular vein use protects the subclavian vein from catheter induced stenosis and occlusion which would preclude shunt placement on that side.

Percutaneous puncture of the subclavian and internal jugular vein was popularized by Stellato et al.

There are numerous anatomical landmark techniques for accessing the IJ. Commonly the carotid artery is manually displaced medially and a needle puncture is made midway between the angle of the mandible and superior margin of the clavicle directed towards the ipsilateral nipple.  

 

                                     

                                                                                    

Normally the IJ vein lies lateral and slightly anterior to the carotid artery.

Because the course of jugular vein changes, the anatomic relationship between the IJ and common carotid artery is extremely variable. In addition the IJ may be small or thrombosed. Therefore, it is best to avoid potential complications by utilizing sonography for both the pre operative jugular vein assessment as well as direct visualization during the puncture.

Denys and Uretsky evaluated 200 consecutive patients with sonography and found that the IJ was normal size and position in 92%, non-visualized in 2.5%, and exceedingly small in 3%. Other studies including our own suggest that IJ variations from normal can occur in up to 28%.

Remember, variability among authors may relate to the level and degree of neck rotation when examined with ultrasound. As the neck is turned away from 30 to 90 degrees the IJ assumes a more anterior position in relation to the carotid artery.

The Valsalva maneuver or Trendelenburg position can increase the size of the IJ. If these maneuvers do not increase the IJ size, distal stenosis or obstruction should be considered.

Another caveat - extending the patient’s neck may actually flatten and decrease the size of the IJ vein.

When using ultrasound, the transducer orientation should be transverse to clearly differentiate between carotid artery and IJ.

 

 The anatomic relationship of the internal jugular vein to the carotid artery varies. Sonography lessens the complications of inadvertent puncture and or cannulation of the carotid artery.  

 

Variable relationship of Internal Jugular Vein and Carotid Artery  

 

 

External jugular (EJ):

The external jugular vein (EJ) begins approximately at the level of the angle of the mandible (from the junction of the posterior auricular and the retromandibular veins) and courses posterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle to enter inferiorly into the subclavian vein.

Occasionally both the IJ and EJ may have incomplete or valve like structures.

Two sets of valves, tortuosity and course make the EJ less useful for venous access. Also, some EJ veins terminate in more of a plexus making catheter traversal difficult.

Some authors suggest that although it is not the most reliable route it is the safest.

 

Intercostal veins:

There are both anterior and posterior intercostal veins. The posterior division enters into the azygous and hemiazygous systems. The anterior division empties into the internal mammary vein. They lie beneath the ribs and serve as a collateral pathway in the presence of central deep venous thrombosis (DVT). As collaterals they may hypertrophy and be accessible for venous access.

Complications of access include PTX and damage to the neurovascular bundle.

Use of the external jugular and intercostal veins depends on their size.

a. PICC lines

b. Occasionally non-tunneled central lines

c. Rarely tunneled catheters

 

 

Abdomen:  

Inferior vena cava (IVC):

The IVC is formed from the junction of the common iliac veins at approximately the L5 level. It courses upwards towards the heart anteriorly and to the right of the spine. It lies to the right of the aorta and is oval in shape.

The renal veins enter the IVC at approximately the lower third of L1. The left renal vein enters slightly higher than the right. Both can be duplicated. IVC duplication .2%, Left renal vein duplication 11- 17%.

The IVC is commonly used for CVC’s when other sites are exhausted. It can be used for essentially any type of CVC but mostly for long term tunneled catheters. Considering the position of the IVC, be sure the CVC length is adequate.

The IVC can be accessed by either the translumbar or the transhepatic route.

Hepatic veins :

These consist of a right, middle and left. All three may join and enter the IVC as a common trunk but most commonly the right enters by itself and in 80% the middle and left hepatic veins have a common trunk.

The middle hepatic vein lies in the interlobar fissure separating the R and L lobes of the liver. The anterior course permits peripheral access.

Caudate veins (usually 2-3) drain separately into the IVC, several cm’s below the main hepatic veins.

Like the IVC the hepatic veins are recognized as a last resort type of access site. The middle hepatic vein is the most commonly chosen. It is most anterior and can provide a long intravascular course. This helps eliminate migration (withdrawl) of the catheter that occurs with respiration.

Any type of CVC can be placed.

Most prefer a subcostal approach to help avoid pneumothorax. Ultrasound can be utilized for localization and guidance if preferred. Once the hepatic vein is cannulated a guide wire is advanced to the IVC. The tract is serially dilated and a peel away sheath placed. As with other methods the catheter and tunnel length are determined and the catheter tip placed in the lower right atrium.

 

We also prefer the subcostal approach and use ultrasound to localize a hepatic vein. After appropriate patient preparation and local anesthesia we use an antegrade approach.

We connect a 10 cc syringe of diluted contrast to a 22 ga. Chiba needle and advance the needle towards the localized vein while injecting small volumes of contrast approximately every 0.5 cm. Using fluoroscopy, the hepatic vein is opacified and cannulated. This method also allows for needle redirection if a vital structure is transgressed. As before, we also "test the tract" before proceeding with catheter placement.

In addition, unless a specific catheter is required, we use a small (6 Fr.) self retaining catheter to avoid migration.

The major problem with this approach is catheter migration from normal respiratory motion.

Hepatic vein thrombosis has not been a clinical problem.

Infections unique to this approach have not been reported.

 

 

Collateral Veins:

Collaterals  form in response to more centrally occluded veins. Their purpose is to re-route blood back to the right atrium. They can occur anywhere but are common in the chest and neck. Because of their diminutive size and tortuous course they are usually best for PICC lines, however, small tunneled and non-tunneled lines are a possibility.

Collaterals are especially useful in individuals with a coagulopathy where other sites are more prone to bleeding.

Common collaterals employed include intercostal and chest wall veins.

 

When choosing a collateral vein for central venous access, it is important to be sure that it is not the last remaining draining vein in the event that it also becomes thrombosed.

 

Thrombosed Veins: 

Many long-term central venous access patients have limited access due to thrombosis of previous sites. In these individuals it may be feasible to preserve the remaining access sites by negotiating through obstructed veins either for reconstruction of the vein or simple placement of a catheter.

Although these veins appear impenetrable, using sonography, guide catheters, hydrophilic guide wires and time, many can be negotiated. Once the occlusion is bypassed, the vein can be dilated using tapered Teflon dilators, Van Andel or balloon catheters. Occasionally, the CVC may be simply placed through the occlusion without dilatation.

Because these vessels have become essentially useless, complications are rare and if negotiation is unsuccessful, nothing is lost. Perforation is rare and often clinically inconsequential, however, proper technique should be employed to prevent this.

 The following is a technique that we find helpful in those chronic obstructions that allow passage of a guide wire but are so firm that they preclude traversal by a catheter. 

First gain access from above as usual and negotiate a wire through the obstruction. Next gain access from below, i.e. femoral vein, and snare the wire that has been negotiated through the obstruction. 

Next, place a dilator or tapered catheter over the guide wire from above and hemostat the wire just distal to the catheter hub. Now, pull the catheter through the occlusion by pulling the wire from the femoral access.

Thrombosed vein access can be used for all types of CVC’s.

Neck

Cervical Fasciae

Investing Layer

Attachments

Pretracheal Fascia

Attachments

Prevertebral Fascia

Attachments

Carotid Sheath

Root of Neck

Boundaries

Contents

Arteries

Brachiocephalic Trunk

Subclavian

Veins

Anterior Jugular

Nerves

Vagus

Phrenic Nerve

Sympathetic Chain

Lymphatics

Viscera

Muscles

Ligament

Posterior Triangle of Neck

Boundaries

Contents

Muscle

Origin

Insertion

Innervation

Action

Splenius capitus

inf ligamentum nuchae, spinous processes of T1-T6

lat mastoid process and sup nuchal line

cervical spinal nn.

lat flexes head & neck, rotates head & neck to same side

Levator scapulae

transverse processes of C1-C4

sup med scapula

cervical spinal nn.

elevates scapula

Scalenus posterior

transverse process of C4-C6

2nd rib

cervical spinal nn.

lat flexes neck, elevates 2nd rib

Scalenus medius

transverse process of C2 & C7

sup post 1st rib

cervical spinal nn.

lat flexes neck, elevates 1st rib

Sterncleidomastoid

2 heads, sternal and clavicular

lat mastoid process, lat sup. nuchal line

CN XI

extend atlantio-occipital joint, flex cervical vertebrae

Subdivisions

Anterior Triangle of Neck

Boundaries

Contents

Muscle

Origin

Insertion

Innervation

Actions

Mylohyoid

mylohyoid line of mandible

hyoid

mylohyoid n. (branch of V3 n.)

elevates hyoid, floor of mouth and tongue

Geniohyoid

inf mental spine of mandible

hyoid

C1 n

pulls hyoid ant-sup, shortens floor of mouth, widens pharynx

Stylohyoid

styloid process

hyoid

facial n.

elevates and retracts hyoid

Digastric

ant belly: mandible

post belly: mastoid process

intermediate tendon: hyoid

ant belly: mylohyoid n.

post belly: facial n.

depresses mandible, raises and steadies hyoid

Omohyoid

Sup border of scapula

hyoid

ansa cervicalis

depresses, retracts and steadies hyoid

Sternohyoid

manubrium and med clavicle

hyoid

ansa cervicalis

depresses hyoid

Sternothyroid

post surface ofmanubrium

thyroid cartilage

ansa cervicalis

depresses hyoid and larynx

Thyrohyoid

thyroid cartilage

hyoid

C1.

depresses hyoid and raises larynx

Subdivisions

 

 

Submental

Digastric

Carotid

Muscular

Boundaries

 

median triangle

situated between ant bellies of digastric muscles and hyoid bone

floor: mylohyoid muscle

ant: ant digastric

post: post digastric

sup (base): base of ant triangle

floor: mylohyoid, hyoglossus, part of mid constrictor of pharynx

ant-inf: sup omohyoid

post: ant sternocleidomastoid

sup: post digastric & stylohyoid

floor: thyrohyoid, hyoglossus, mid & inf constrictors of pharynx

bounded by ant sternocleidomastoid, sup omohyoid, median plane

floor: infrahyoid muscles

Contents

Arteries

 

facial vessels

mylohyoid vessels

submandibular vessels

carotid sheath + contents

common carotid

int & ext carotid + branches (sup thyroid, asc pharyngeal, lingual, facial, occipital, post auricular)

 

Veins

submental

int jugular + tributaries (facial, pharyngeal, lingual, sup & mid thyroid)

 

Nerves

 

mylohyoid nerves

CN IX, X, XII

CN IX, X, XI

ansa cervicalis

sympathetic chain

ansa cervicalis

Muscles

 

hyoglossus

mylohyoid

 

infrahyoid muscles (sternohyoid, omohyoid, sternothyroid, thyrohyoid)

Other

submental lymph nodes

submandibular gland

lower part of parotid gland

deep cervical lymph nodes

carotid body

neck viscera

Notes

 

 

 

carotid sinus (baroreceptor) dilation of prox int carotid a., innervated by sinus branch of glossopharyngeal

carotid body lies (chemoreceptor) lies behind, also supplied by sinus branch

best site to approach big blood vessels in neck

all infrahyoids supplied by ansa cervicalis, except for thyrohyoid, supplied by C1

Midline of Neck

Blood Vessels

Arteries

Common Carotid Arteries

Internal Carotid Artery

External Carotid Artery

Branches of External Carotid Artery

Surface

Branch

Notes

Anterior

superior thyroid

arises close to origin of ext carotid, just inf to greater horn of hyoid

runs ant-inf (deep to infrahyoids) to reach sup pole of thyroid

also gives off muscular branches to sternocleidomastoid and infrahyoid muscles, and sup laryngeal a.

Lingual

arises from ext carotid where it lies on mid constrictor of pharynx

arches sup-ant at the level of greater horn of hyoid) and n passes deep to hypoglossal n., stylohyoid and post digastric

disappears deep to hyoglossus muscle, then on genioglossus to becomes deep lingual a.

Facial

arise from ext carotid just sup to the lingual a.

gives off tonsillar branch and branches to palate passes sup (under stylohyoid, digastric ), loops ant and enters deep groove in submandibular gland

crosses inf border of mandible and enters face

Posterior

Occipital

arises near level of facial a., passes post along inf border of post belly of digastric, ends in post part of scalp, during course pass superf to int carotid a. and CN IX, X and XI

post auricular

arise at sup post belly of digastric, ascends post of ext auditory meatus and supplies adjacent muscles, parotid gland, facial n. and scalp

Medial

asc. Pharyngeal

ascends on pharynx (deep to int carotid) and sends branches to pharynx, prevertebral muscles, middle ear and meninges

Veins

Internal Jugular Vein

Thyroid Gland

Clinical

Pharynx

Larynx

Cavity

Muscles of the Larynx

Nerves of the Larynx

Head

Skull: Checklist of bones, sutures, features, and foramina

 

 

SKULL

 

Cranium (Brain case ) Facial skeleton

or Neurocranium

or Viscerocranium

 

Calvaria Cranial base

or Cranial Vault or Base of skull

or Upper part of brain case

 

 

 

 

 

The 8 Bones of cranium:

The 14 Bones of facial skeleton:

(4 single and 2 paired) (2single and 6 paired)

Frontal bone (single) Vomer (single)

Ethmoid bone (single) Nasal bone (paired)

Sphenoid bone (single) Lacrimal bone (paired)

Occipital bone (single) Inferior concha (paired)

Parietal bone (paired) Palatine bone (paired)

Temporal bone (paired) Zygomatic bone (paired) Maxilla (paired)

Mandible (single=two halves)

 

 

 

 

 

Skull : Exterior Views

 

1. Norma Verticalis ( Superior View ):

Bones Frontal

Parietals

Occipital ( squamous part )

Sutures : Coronal

Sagittal

Lambdoid

Frontal ( Metopic ) [occasional]

Features: Parietal eminence

Bregma

Lambda

Foramen: Parietal

2. Norma Frontalis ( Anterior View ):

Bones : Frontal

Nasal

Maxilla

Zygomatic

Features : Supercilary arches

Glabella

Nasion

Orbit

Anterior nasal aperture

Anterior nasal spine

Foramina:

Infraorbital

Zygomaticofacial

 

3. Norma Lateralis ( Lateral View ):

Bones : Frontal

Parietal

Sphenoid ( greater wing )

Temporal: ( squamous part , and zygomatic, mastoid and styloid processes)

Occipital

Zygomatic

Maxilla

Features: Pterion

Superior and Inferior temporal lines

Supramastoid crest

Temporal fossa

Infratemporal fossa

Pterygopalatine fossa

Foramina : External accoustic meatus.

Zygomaticotemporal foramen.

 

4. Norma Occipitalis ( Posterior view ):

Bones : Parietals

Occipital

Temporal ( mastoid part )

Sutures: Lambdoid

Parietomastoid

Occipitomastoid

 

Features: External occipital protuberance

Superior nuchal line

Inferior nuchal line

Inion.

5. Norma Basalis ( Inferior View ):

Bones: Maxilla: Palatine processes, alveolar processes

Palatine: Horizontal plate

Sphenoid: Body, greater wings, and medial and lateral pterygoid

plates.

Temporal: Squamous, petromastoid, and tympanic parts

Occipital: Basilar and squamous parts

Features: Incissive fossa

Posterior nasal spine

Pharyngeal tubercle

Pterygoid fossa

Scaphoid fossa

Pterygoid hamulus

Infratemporal crest

Spine of sphenoid

Mandibular fossa

Articular tubercle

Jugular fossa

Styloid process

Occipital condyle

Mastoid process

Mastoid notch (groove for posterior belly of digastric muscle)

External occipital crest

Superior and inferior nuchal lines

External occipital protuberance

Foramina : Incisive

Greater and lesser palatine

Foramen ovale

Foramen spinosum

Foramen lacerum

Opening for auditory tube

Carotid canal

Pterygoid canal

Foramen magnum

Hypoglossal canal

Jugular foramen

Stylomastoid foramen

Posterior nasal apertures (choanae)

 

 

Interior of the Skull

 

  1. Inner aspect of the calvaria (vault)

Bones: Frontal

Parietal

Occipital

Features : Frontal crest

Groove for superior sagittal sinus

Groove for brances of middle meningeal vessels

Depressions for arachnoid granulations

Foramina: Parietal

 

B. Cranial Fossae:

  1. Anterior Cranial Fossa:

Bones: Frontal (orbital plates)

Ethmoid (cribriform plate)

Sphenoid (lesser wings and jugum)

Features: Crista galli

Anterior clinoid process

Foramina: Cribriform plate foramina

Foramen caecum

Nasal slits

  1. Middle Cranial Fossa:

Bones: Sphenoid (body and greater wings)

Temporal (petrous and squamous parts)

Parietal

Features: Sulcus chiasma

Sella turcica

Tuberculum sellae

Hypophyseal fossa

Dorsum sellae

Posterior clinoid processes

Groove (sulcus) for internal carotid artery

Middle clinoid process

Impression for the trigeminal ganglion

Foramina: Optic canal

Superior orbital fissure

Foramen rotundum

Foramen ovale

Foramen spinosum

Foramen lacerum

Fissures for greater and lesser petrosal nerves

 

 

  1. Posterior cranial fossa:

Bones: Occipital (basillar and squamous parts)

Temporal (petrou..s and mastoid parts)

Parietal

Sphenoid (body)

 

Features: Groove for transverse sinus Groove for sigmoid sinus

Internal occipital crest

Internal occipital protuberance

Clivus

Foramina: Foramen magnum

Jugular foramen

Hypoglossal (anterior condylar) canal

Internal auditory (acoustic) meatus

Posterior condylar canal

.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Bones of the orbit

Margins of the orbit:

Medial: Frontal and maxillary bones

Superior: Frontal bone

. Lateral: Zygomatic and frontal bones

Inferior: Zygomatic and maxillary bones

Walls of the orbit:

Medial wall: Maxilla (frontal process)

Lacrimal bone

Ethmoid (orbital part)

Sphenoid (body)

Features: Nasolacrimal canal

Anterior and posterior ethmoid foramena

Roof (Superior) wall: Frontal (orbital plate)

sphenoid (lesser wing)

Features: Lacrimal fossa (for lacrimal gland)

Optic foramen

Trochlear fossa

Lateral wall: Sphenoid (anterior surface of the greater wing)

Zygomatic (orbital surface)

Features: Zygomatic canal (for zygomatic nerve from maxillary nerve)

Floor (Inferior) wall: Maxilla (orbital surface)

Zygomatic bone

Palatine bone (orbital process)

Features: Infra orbital groove and canal

 

 

*Superior Orbital Fissure: separates the lateral wall from the roof.

*Inferior Orbital Fissure: separates the floor from the lateral wall.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Pterygopalatine Fossa

Roof: Inferior surface of body of sphenoid

Orbitalprocess of palatine bone

Inferior orbital fissure

Floor: Apposition of anterior and posterior walls of the fossa

Anterior wall: Upper part of posterior surface of maxilla

Posterior wall: Anterior surface of greater wing of sphenoid

Root of pterygoid process

Anterior opening of pterygoid canal

Medial wall: Upper part of perpendicular plate of palatine bone

Orbital and sphenoidal processes of palatine bone

Sphenopalatine foramen

 

Mandible

  1. Body: Surfaces ( external and internal )

Borders ( upper and lower )

Mental protuberance

Mental tubercle

Mental foramen

Oblique line

Digastric fossa

Mylohyoid line

Submandibular fossa

Sublingual fossa

Mental spines

Mylohyoid groove

2. Ramus: Surfaces ( lateral and medial )

Borders ( anterior and posterior )

Mandibular notch

Coronoid process

Condylar process ( head and neck of the mandible )

Angle of the mandible

Mandibular canal

Lingula

 

 

Foramina of Middle Cranial Fossa

 

Optic Canal

  • CN II, ophthalmic artery, central retinal vein

Superior Orbital Fissure

  • CN III, IV, VI, ophthalmic vein

Foramen Rotundum

  • CN V2 ( maxillary br.)

Foramen Ovale  

  • CN V3 (mandibular br.)

Foramen Spinosum

  • middle meningeal artery

Foramen Lacerum

  • nothing

 

* all structures pass through sphenoid bone

 

 

 Foramina of Posterior Cranial Fossa

 

Internal auditory meatus

  • CN VII, VIII

Jugular foramen

  • CN IX, X, XI, jugular vein

Hypoglossal canal

  • CN XII

Foramen magnum

  • spinal root of CN XI, brain stem , vertebral artery

 

* all structures pass through  temporal & occipital bone

 

 

Passage of Cranial Nerves

 

CN I

  • Cribriform plate

CN II  

  • Optic canal

CN III, IV, V1, VI

  • Superior orbital fissure

CN V2

  • Foramen rotundum

CN V3

  • Foramen ovale

CN VII, VIII

  • Internal auditory meatus

CN IX, X, XI

  • Jugular foramen

 

 

Mastication muscles

  • 3 muscles to close jaw  : masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid
  • 1 muscle to open jaw   : lateral pterygoid
  • All are innervated by  CN V3

 

 

3 Structures in Carotid sheath

  • V  :  internal jugular vein ( lateral )
  • A  :  common carotid artery ( medial )
  • N  :  vagus nerve ( posterior )

 

 

Diaphragm

Embryology

  • septum transversum
  • pleutoperitoneal folds
  • dorsal mesentery of esophagus
  • body wall

Passage

At T 8

Inferior vena cava

At T10

esophagus, vagus

At T12

aorta, thoracic duct, azygous vein

Innervation

C3,4,5 : Referred pain to shoulder

 

 

 8 Layers of Abdomianl wall

Spermatic cord

 Skin

 

 Fascia ( Camper's & Scarpa's )

 Dartos muscle & Colles' fascia

 Ext. Oblique muscles

 Ext. spermatic fascia & superficial inguinal ring

 Int. Oblique muscles

 Cremaster muscle & conjoint tendon

 Transeverse abdominalis

 No contribution except to conjoint tendon

 Transverse facisa

 Internal spermatic fascia & deep inguinal ring

 Extraperitoneal fat

 

 Peritoneum

 Tunica vaginalis testis & processus vaginalis

 

 

Inguinal Hernia

Direct Hernia

  • Protrude through inguinal ( Hasselbach's) triangle
  • Bulge directly through abdominal wall medial to inf. epigastric artery
  • Goes through the superficial inguinal ring only

Indirect Hernia

  • Due to failure of closure of processus vaginalis
  • Enters deep inguinal ring lateral to inf. epigastric artery
  • Goes through deep & superficial inguinal ring, and into scrotum

Hasselbach's triangle

  • Inguinal ligament
  • Inferior epigastric artery
  • Lateral border of rectus abdominalis

 

 

Clinical Landmarks

Ischial spine        

  • Pudendal nerve block

McBurney's point

  • Appendix 2/3 of the way between umblicus & Superior iliac spine

Iliac crest            

  • Lumbar pucture

 

 

 Hand Muscle : Thenar - Hypothenar

Thenar

  • Opponens pollicis
  • Abductor pollicis brevis
  • Flexor pollicis brevis

Hypothenar

  • Opponens digiti minimi
  • Abductor digiti minimi
  • Flexor digiti minimi

 

 

Contents of femoral sheath

lateral to medial

femoral nerve, artery, vein, lymphatics

femoral nerve lies outside femoral sheath

femoral canal contains deep inguinal lymph node

 

 

Unhappy triad of Knee injury

  • Common for football injury ( by clipping from the side )
  • Injury of medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, anterior cruciate ligament

 Anterior Drawer sign : indicate tearing of ant. crucate ligament

 

 

Muscle name with Palate

  • Innervation by Vagus nerve , but tensor veli palatini --> CN V3

 

 

KLM sounds

Kuh- kuh-kuh

test palatal elevation

vagus nerve

La- la- la

test tongue

hypoglossal nerve

Mi- mi- mi

test lips

facial nerve

 

  

Muscle name with ~Glossus

  • Innervation of hypoglossal nerve, but palatoglossus --> vagal nerve

 

 

Cervical rib

  • An embriological defect ;  can compress subcalvian artery and inferior trunk of branchial plexus (C8, T1), resulting in thoracic outlet syndrome
  • Atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminences
  • Atrophy of the interosseous muscle
  • Sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearm and hand
  • Disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving the head toward the opposite side

 

 

Medial nerve injury

Motor deficit

  • no loss of power in any of arm muscle
  • loss of forearm pronation, wrist, and finger flexion
  • several thumb movement, thenar atrophy

Sensory deficit

  • loss of sense in lateral palm, over thumb, radial 2 finger

 

  

Ulnar nerve injury

Motor deficit

  • impaired wrist flexion & adduction
  • impaired adduction of thumb & ulnar 2 fingers

 

 

 

Radial nerve injury

Motor deficit

  • triceps brachi ( triceps reflex )
  • brachioradialis ( brachioradialis reflex )
  • extensor carpi radialis longus

Sensory deficit

  • posterior brachial cutaneous
  • dorsal antebrachial cutaneous

 

 

Axillary nerve injury

Motor deficit     

loss of deltoid action

 

  

Musculocutaneous nerve injury                   

Motor deficit                    

 loss of function of coracobrachialis, biceps & brachialis muscle ( biceps reflex )     

  • affect flextion at the shoulder (coracobrachialis & biceps brachii)
  • flexion at elbow (brachialis , biceps brachii )
  • supination of forearm ( biceps brachii )

Sensory deficit

  • below elbow, continue as lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm
  • no distribution to hand

 

 

 

Erb- Duchenne palsy

Cause

Traction or tear of the superior trunk of the brachial plexus (C5 & C6 roots)
; follows falling down on shoulder or trauma during delivery

Findings

  • limb hangs by side ( paralysis of abductors )
  • medially rotated ( paralysis of lateral rotators )
  • forearm is pronated ( loss of biceps )

 

 

Nerve injury in lower limbs

  • Common peroneal nerve
  • loss of dorsiflexion ( foot drop )
  • Tibial nerve                 
  • loss of plantar flexion
  • Femoral nerve               
  • loss of knee jerk
  • Obturator nerve
  • loss of hip adduction

 

 

 

Pectinate line

  • Above the line
  • internal hekmorrhoid ( not painful ), adenocarcinoma
  • visceral innervation, blood supply, and lymphatic drainage
  • Below the line  
  • external hemorrhoid ( painful ), squamous cell ca,
  • Somatic innervation, blood supply & lymphatic drainage

 

 

Portal - systemic anastomosis

  • Esophageal varices
  • left gastric --- azygous
  • Hemorrhoid
  • superior --- middle / inferior rectal
  • Caput medusae      
  • paraumbilical --- inferior epigastric

 

 

 

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

  • Supplies all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid muscle.
  • Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

  wraps around the aortic arch and the ligamentum arteriosum

  • Right recurrent laryngeal nerve

  wraps around right subclavian artery.

  • Damages results in hoarseness as a complication of thyroid surgery.

 

 

 

Lung relations

  • Right lung has three lobes. Left has two lobes and Lingula ( homologue of right middle lobe ).
  • Right lung more common site are for inhaled foreign body owing to less acute angle of right main stem bronchus
  • Relation of pulmonary artery to the bronchus at each lung hilus : RALS ( Right-Anteior, Left-Superior )
  • Bronchial & Pulmonary artery run with airways in the center, veins and lymphatics drain along the border

 

 

Course of ureter          

  • pass under artery & under ductus deferens

 

 

Autonomic innervation of penis     

  • Erection
  • by parasympathetic nervous system  ( Point )
  • Emission
  • by sympathetic innervation ( Shoot )
  • Ejaculation
  • by somatic & visceral nerves

 

 

Ligaments of the uterus

  • pubocervical, transverse cervical ( cardinal ), sacrocervical ligaments, round ligament of uterus, round ligament of ovary
  • round ligament of uterus  : homologous to gubernaculum testis; run from labia majora to uterus
  • round ligament of ovary  : run from uterus to ovary
  • broad ligament contains the round ligaments of the uterus, the round ligaments of the ovary, the uterine tubes, the epoophoron and multiple lymphatic vessels & nerve fibers

 

 

_____________________________________________________________________________________

Skull

Anterior Aspect

Posterior Aspect

Superior Aspect

Inferior Aspect

Lateral Aspect

Internal Aspect

Walls

Bones of Calvaria

Frontal Bone

Parietal bones

Face

Sensory Nerves

Ophthalmic Nerve (V1)

Nasociliary

Frontal

Lacrimal

Maxillary Nerve (V2)

Mandibular Nerve (V3)

Motor Nerves

Arterial Supply

Facial Artery

Superficial Temporal Artery

Venous Drainage

Retromandibular Vein

Lymph Drainage

Muscles of Face

Notes

 

 

 

Eye

orbicularis oculi

sphincter (narrows eye and encourages secretion of tears)

three parts: orbital (closing eyes tightly), palpebral (closing eyes lightly), lacrimal (pulls eye med)

Nose

nasalis

compression/dilation of nostril

compressor naris: rudimentary in human

dilators of nose: flare the alar cartilages of nose

Mouth

orbicularis oris

sphincter

fibres derived from buccinator and or facial muscles

dilator muscles

 

radiate out like spokes

buccinator

presses cheeks against teeth

attached to alveolar processes and pterygomandibular raphe fibres mingle with orbicularis oris

 

 

Scalp

 

 

Scalp

Boundaries

 

covers vault of skull

lat: temporal lines

ant: eyebrows

post: sup nuchal line

Contents

Arteries

from int carotid (supraorbital, supratrochlear)

from ext carotid (superf temporal, post auricular occipital)

Veins

supratrochlear & supraorbital ( facial)

superf temporal + maxillary ( retromandibular)

post auricular + post retromandibular ( ext jugular)

occipital ( suboccipital plexus  vertebral)

emissary (communication with inside of skull)

Nerves

trigeminal (supratrocheal, supraorbital, zygomatico-temporal, auriculo-temporal)

C2 (greater & lesser occipital)

Muscles

occipitofrontalis

tempoparietalis

lymph

scalp above parotid gland  parotid lymph nodes

scalp above auricle  retroauricular lymph nodes

back of scalp  occipital lymph nodes

Notes

 

trigeminal supply ant to line between ears and vertex, C2 supplies rest

Layers

Epicranial Aponeurosis

Applied Anatomy

Cranial Fossae

Anterior Cranial Fossa

Middle Cranial Fossa

Posterior Cranial Fossa

 

 

 

 

 Foramina of skull

Foramen Ovale

  1. Mandibular div. of trigeminal
  2. Accessory meningeal A.
  3. Lesser petrosal N.

Foramen spinosum

  1. Middle meningeal A.
  2. Meningeal branch of mandibular N.

Carotid canal

Int. carotid A. with venous and sympathetic plexuses

Palatovaginal canal

  1. Pharyngeal branch of pterygopalatine ganglion
  2. Minute pharyngeal branch from 3rd part of maxillary artery

Pterygoid canal

Nerve of pterygoid canal

Sphenoidal emissary foramen

Emissary vein from cavernous sinus

Foramen lacerum

  1. Int. carotid A.
  2. Deep petrosal N.
  3. Greater petrosal N.
  4. Meningeal branches of ascending pharyngeal A.
  5. Emissary vein from cavernous sinus.

2 and 3 join to form N. of pterygoid canal.

Foramen magnum

  1. Apical ligament of dens
  2. Membrana tectoris
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Meninges
  5. Spinal roots of accessory N.
  6. Vertebral A. with sympathetic plexus
  7. Post. spinal A.
  8. Ant. spinal A.

Hypoglossal canal

  1. Hypoglossal N
  2. Meningeal br. of ascending pharyngeal A.
  3. Emissary vein from basilar plexus

 

Jugular foramen

  1. Inf. petrosal sinus
  2. Glossopharyngeal N.
  3. Vagus N.
  4. Accessory N.
  5. Int. jugular V.
  6. Sigmoid sinus

Condylar canal

Emissary vein from sigmoid sinus

Stylomastoid foramen

  1. Facial N.
  2. Stylomastoid br. of post. auricular A.

Cribriform plate of ethmoid

Olfactory N form nasal mucosa to olfactory bulb

Ant. ethmoidal canal

  1. Ant. ethmoidal N.
  2. Ant. ethmoidal vessels

Post. ethmoidal canal

Post. etmoidal vessels

Optic canal

  1. Optic N.
  2. Ophthalmic A.
  3. Meninges

Superior orbital fissure

  1. Terminal branches of ophthalmic N.
  2. Ophthalmic V.
  3. Occulomotor
  4. Trochlear
  5. Abducent

Foramen rotundum

Maxillary N.

Internal acoustic meatus

  1. Facial N.
  2. Vestibulocochlear N.
  3. Nervus intermedius
  4. Labyrinthine vessels

Facial canal

Facial N.

Mastoid foramen

  1. Emissary V. from transverse sinus
  2. Meningeal branch of occipital A.

 

 

 

Foramina of the skull

 

Foramina

Contents

 

Or

Nerves

Anterior

foramen cecum

nasal emissary v. (present in children and 1% of adults)

 

foramina in cribiform plates

 

axons of olfactory cells

ant & post ethmoidal foramina

vessels and nn. with same names

 

Middle

optic canals

ophthalmic aa.

CN II

sup orbital fissures*

ophthalmic vv.

CN V1, III, IV, VI, SNS

foramen rotundum*

 

CV V2 (maxillary n.)

foramen ovale*

accessory meningeal a.

CN V3 (mandibular n.)

foramen spinosum*

mid meningeal vessels

meningeal branch of CN V3

foramen lacerum*

int carotid a.

accompanying sympathetic and venous plexuses

 

hiatus of greater petrosal n.

petrosal branch of mid meningeal a

greater petrosal n.

Posterior

foramen magnum

vertebral, ant & post spinal aa.

dural vv.

medulla and meninges

spinal roots of CN XI

jugular foramen

sup bulb of int jugular v., inf petrosal & sigmoid sinuses

meningeal branches of asc pharyngeal and occipital aa.

CN IX, X, XI

hypoglossal canal

 

CN XII

condylar canal

emissary v.

 

mastoid foramen

mastoid emissary v.

meningeal branch of occipital a.

 

Cranial Meninges and CSF

Dura Mater

Dural Septa or Reflections

Falx Cerebri

Tentorium Cerebelli

Falx Cerebelli

Diaphragma Sellae

Arteries

Nerve Supply

Arachnoid Mater

Pia Mater

Venous Sinuses of Dura Mater

Superior Sagittal Sinus

Inferior Sagittal Sinus

Straight Sinus

Transverse Sinus

Sigmoid Sinuses

Occipital Sinus

Superior and iferior Petrosal Sinuses

Cavernous Sinuses

Receives blood from:

Drains blood into

Relations

Immediate relations

Mouth

Lips

Cheeks

Tongue

General Features

 

 

Lingual Musculature

Muscles

Main actio

Nerve supply

Extrinsic

genioglossus

protrusion

 

CN XII

hyoglossus

depression

styloglossus

retraction

palatoglossus

elevation

Pharyngeal plexus

Intrinsic

sup longitudinal muscle

 

they change the shape of the tongue

 

CN XII

inf longitudinal muscle

transverse muscle

vertical muscle

Nerve Supply

 

 

Ant 2/3

Post1/3

Sensory

General

lingual (CN V)

glossopharyngeal

Special

chorda tympani (CN VII)

Motor

hypoglossal (except for palatoglossus, supplied by CN X)

Arterial Supply

Venous Drainage

Lymphatics

Applied Anatomy

Palate

Hard Palate

Soft Palate

Structure

Muscles

Blood Supply

Lymphatics

Nerve Supply

Submandibular Region

Structures

Parotid Glands

Position and Extent

Parotid Duct

Structures within the Gland

Nerve and blood Supply

Applied Anatomy

Nose and Nasal Cavity

Skeleton of External Nose

Nasal Septum

Nasal Cavities

Walls

Linings

Nerve Supply

Arterial Supply

Venous drainage

Lymphatics

Paranasal Air Sinuses

Mucosa

Frontal Sinus

Maxillary Sinus

Ethmoidal Sinuses

Sphenoidal Sinus

Nerve Supply of Paranasal Sinuses

Blood Supply of Paranasal Sinuses

Lymphatics of Paranasal Sinuses

Orbit and Contents

Margins of the orbit

Walls of the orbit

Superior Orbital Fissure

Inferior Orbital Fissure

Contents

Muscles

 

Origin

Insertion

Innervation

Action

Levator palpebrae superioris

roof of orbit, ant to optic canal

skin of upper eyelid

 

CN III

 

 

elevates upper lid

Superior rectus

 

common tendinous ring

 

just post to sclerocorneal junction

elevate, adduct

Inferior rectus

depress, adduct

Medial rectus

adducts eye

Lateral rectus

CN VI

abducts eye

Superior oblique

body of sphenoid

runs through trochlea, post-sup lat orbit

CN IV

depress, abduct

Inferior oblique

maxilla in floor of orbit

post-inf lat orbit

CN III

elevate, abduct

Fascial Sheath of eyeball (bulbar fascia or Tenon’s fascia):

Nerves of Orbit

Blood Vessels

Ophthalmic Artery

Central Artery of Retina

Ciliary Arteries

Lacrimal Artery

Temporal Region

Temporal Fossa

Infratemporal Fossa

Boundaries

Contents

Maxillary a.

Part
(divided by lat pterygoid)

Course

Branches

First

passes horizontally forwards between neck of mandible and lower border of pterygoid

deep auricular

ant tympanic

mid meningeal

accessory meningeal

inf alveolar

Second

runs obliquely forward and upwards superf to inf head of lat pterygoid

to muscles of this region

Third

runs between sup and inf heads of lat pterygoid, then through pteryggomaxillary fissure into pterygomandibular fossa

post sup alveolar

infraorbital

desc. palantine

pharyngeal

sphenopalatine

Pterygoid Venous Plexus

Mandibular Nerve

Part

Type

Branch

 

Main trunk

Motor (3)

med pterygoid m

 

tensor tympani m

 

tensor palati m

 

Sensory (1)

meningeal

 

Ant division

Motor (3)

massteric n to masseter m

 

deep temporal nn. to temporalis

 

n. to lat pterygoid

 

Sensory (1)

buccal

usually runs between two heads of lat pterygoid, desc through deep temporalis, supplies skin and mucous membrane of cheek

Post division

Motor (1)

n. to mylohyoid and ant digastric

 

Sensory (3)

auriculotemporal

encircles med meningeal a., breaks up into many branches, largest passes post, med to neck of mandible and supplies auricle and temporal region, also sends articular fibres to temperomandibular joint

lingual

lies ant to inf alveolar n., sensory to tongue, floor of mouth and gingivae, enters mouth between med pterygoid muscle and ramus of mandible, passes ant under oral mucosa, just inf to 3rd molar tooth

chorda tympani branch of facial n. travels with it

inf alveolar

enters mandibular foramen, passes through mandibular canal (where it sends nn. to teeth) and appears on face as mental n., supplies skin and mucous membrane of lower lip, skin of chin

Otic Ganglion

Temporomandibular Joint

Movement

Muscles

depression

hyoid muscles, gravity

elevation

temporalis, masseter, med pterygoid

protrusion

lat and med pterygoid, masseter (deep fibres)

retraction

post temporalis

side-to-side

med and lat pterygoid, masseter

Muscle

Origin

Insertion

Temporalis

temporal fascia

coronoid process, ant ramus

Masseter

zygomatic arch

lat ramus

Lat pterygoid

sup: infratemporal crest

inf: lat lat pterygoid plate

neck of mandible, articular disk

Med pterygoid

superf: maxillary tuberosity

deep: med lat pterygoid plate

med ramus

Things to Know

The Cranium

1

To what does the term "skull" refer?

 

The skeleton of the head, including the teeth, hyoid bone and ear ossicles.

2

What is the skull minus the mandible called?

 

The cranium.

3

What is the term for the brain case?

 

The cranium - so some confusion can occur with the word ‘cranium’.

4

What is the rest of the skull called?

 

The skeleton of the face.

5

How many bones are there in the cranium (brain case)?

 

Eight.

6

Which also contribute to the facial skeleton?

 

Sphenoid (by pterygoid process) and ethmoid.

7

What are the junctions between the calvarial bones called?

 

Sutures.

8

Are they all similar? Which one in particular is different?

 

No. The parietotemporal (or squamosal) suture, which does not interlock.

9

Which bone(s) contribute to the anterior wall of the posterior cranial fossa?

 

Temporals and occipital.

10

Which bone(s) contribute to the anterior wall of the middle cranial fossa?

 

Sphenoid.

11

Which bone(s) contribute to the anterior wall of the anterior cranial fossa?

 

Frontal.

12

Which bone(s) contribute to the floor of the anterior cranial fossa?

 

Frontal, ethmoid and sphenoid.

13

Which bone(s) contribute to the floor of the middle cranial fossa?

 

Sphenoid and temporal (both petrous and squamous parts).

14

Which bone(s) contribute to the floor of the posterior cranial fossa?

 

Occipital.

15

Does the parietal bone contribute to the lateral wall of the posterior cranial fossa?

 

Not really. Although there is a deep groove for the junction of the transverse and sigmoid sinuses, because they lie in the attached edge of the tentorium the parietal is really excluded from facing into the posterior cranial fossa.

16

What is the pterion?

 

The REGION where the sphenoid and parietal bones meet in the temporal region.

17

What is the asterion?

 

The junction of the parietal, occipital and temporal bones just above and behind the mastoid.

18

Where is the bregma?

 

At the junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures.

19

Where is the lambda?

 

At the junction of the sagittal and parieto-occipital (lambdoid) sutures.

20

What muscles arise from the calvaria?

 

The occipitalis and temporalis muscles.

21

Which major groups of muscles insert into the cranial base?

 

The back muscles - we usually refer to them as the muscles of the back of the neck.

22

What is the diplöe?

 

The trabecular or cancellous bone forming the middle layer of the calvarial bones.

23

Which is the thicker, the inner table or the outer table?

 

Outer.

24

Name the main vessel supplying the bones of the calvaria.

 

The middle meningeal artery.

25

Where does it lie before reaching the bones?

 

In the outer layers of the dura.

26

Which bone in the skull does it traverse to enter the cranium? What is the opening it traverses?

 

The sphenoid, through the foramen spinosum.

27

From what artery does it directly arise? What vessel gives rise to that artery?

 

The maxillary, a branch of the external carotid.

28

Where do the veins accompanying the artery of the calvaria lie? Where do they terminate?

 

They lie in the dura, accompanying the meningeal arteries and end in the pterygoid plexus immediately outside the foramen spinosum.

29

About how thick is the dura mater?

 

½ - 1 mm.

30

What type of tissue is the dura?

 

Dense, regularly arranged fibrous connective tissue = aponeurotic tissue.

31

What two main roles does the dura service in the cranium?

 

As covering of the central nervous system and as periosteum.

32

Which of these roles is not served by the spinal dura?

 

The periosteal one, as spinal dura is separated from bone by extra-dural fat and veins.

33

What is the generic term for the venous blood spaces located in the dura?

 

The dural venous sinuses.

34

Name the venous channel in the attached border of the falx cerebri.

 

The superior sagittal sinus.

35

Name the venous channel in the attached border of the tentorium cerebelli.

 

The transverse (or lateral) sinus.

36

What is the name of the intradural space containing the carotid siphon (internal carotid artery)?

 

The cavernous sinus.

37

Name four other structures found in, or in the walls of, that space.

 

III, IV, V and VI nerves.

38

What venous channels drain the cavernous sinus?

 

The superior and inferior petrosal sinuses.

39

What venous channels drain into the cavernous sinus?

 

The ophthalmic veins, the middle superficial cerebral vein (and the sphenoparietal sinus).

40

How is the pituitary gland related to the cavernous sinuses?

 

Its lateral poles lie against the medial walls of the left and right cavernous sinuses.

41

What is the tentorium cerebelli?

 

The low, tent-like dural partition roofing over the posterior cranial fossa.

42

What is the falx cerebri?

 

The roughly sickle-shaped dural partition separating the two cerebral hemispheres above the corpus callosum.

43

What is the diaphragma sellae?

 

The dural covering of the pituitary fossa. A small opening in its centre allows the infundibulum to reach the gland.

44

Is there cerebrospinal fluid directly about the pituitary gland?

 

No, below the diaphragma sellae the CSF space is obliterated.

45

What direction does the hypophyseal stalk (infundibulum) run as it passes from the hypothalamus to the pituitary?

 

It runs downwards and forwards to the gland.

46

Is the arachnoid mater bound to the dura mater?

 

No. A smooth walled POTENTIAL space separates the two layers.

47

Is the arachnoid mater connected to the pia mater?

 

Yes, by the fine arachnoid processes crossing the subarachnoid space.

48

What is the volume of cerebrospinal fluid?

 

100 - 150 ml. Production about 500 ml/day.

49

About what distance separates pia and arachnoid?

 

2 - 3 mm.

50

Would you like to have more questions on the cranium?

 

 

 

 

The Scalp

1

What is the scalp?

 

It is the investment of the calvaria.

2

What particular characteristic distinguishes it from the immediately adjacent investing layers?

 

It has dense fibrous loculated subcutaneous tissue similar to that of the heel.

3

Define its anterior limit.

 

The eyebrows.

4

Define its posterior limit.

 

The superior muchal lines.

5

Where and how does it end at the sides of the head?

 

Along the zygomatic arch and just above the ears, where the much thinned galea blends with the periosteum.

6

Does it have distinctive regions?

 

Yes. Hair bearing and "non-hair" bearing; (the scalp and forehead of lay terminology).

7

What distinguishes such regions?

 

The presence of terminal hair or its absence.

8

Is that distinguishing feature found elsewhere in the body?

 

Yes. Axillary and pubic hair and the beard and eyelashes and eyebrows are all terminal hair as in the hair on the nape of the neck.

9

How thick is the scalp?

 

5 mm

10

Is it more or less uniformly thick?

 

It is uniformly thick and of essentially similar thickness in men and women.

11

How thick is the epidermis of the scalp? Is that thickness about average for epidermis?

 

100  m. Yes, that is average for the body.

12

How thick is the subcutaneous layer of the scalp? How does that compare with the average thickness throughout the body?

 

1.5 mm. Yes, that is thickness over most of the body.

13

Mention THREE distinctive features of the scalp (or of major parts of the scalp).

 

A Terminal Hair

B Loculated subcutaneous tissue

C Muscle superficial to the investing fascia

14

With what other parts of the body does it share feature A?

 

Face (in males), Axilla, Pubic and perianal areas, eye brows and eyelids.

15

With what other parts of the body does it share feature B?

 

The palms of the hands and soles of the feet.

16

With what other parts of the body does it share feature C?

 

The face, front of neck and upper chest. (The Dartos muscle in the scrotum is smooth muscle).

17

What are the dimensions of Frontalis approximately?

 

5 cm x 5 cm

18

From what does Frontalis arise? In to what does it insert?

 

The Galea aponeurotica; the skin of the eyebrows.

19

How big is Occipitalis in comparison to Frontalis?

 

Much smaller.

20

Does occipitalis abut the midline on each side?

 

No.

21

What are the auricular muscles?

 

Three superficial muscle slips running from the galea to the cartilage of the external ear near the cartilaginous external auditory meatus.

22

What is the Temporoparietalis muscle?

 

A fairly extensive sheet of muscle in the upper temporal region running from the ear upwards and forwards to the galea.

23

What is the name given to the Frontalis, Occipitalis, Temporoparietalis and galea aponeurotica together?

 

Epicranins muscle.

24

At which layer does the scalp move on the cranium?

 

At the layer of loose connective tissue between galea and periosteum (layer 4).

25

Where is the galea aponeurotica firmly attached to bone?

 

At the nuchal line (and, because it is much thinner, less firmly to the zygomatic arches).

26

What layers and structures separate the epidermis in the temporal region from the parietal and sphenoid bones?

 

Dermis, thinned galea, rather denser layer 4 (loose connective tissue), the temporalis fascia (representing a true investing fascia), the temporalis muscle and periosteum.

27

What vessels supply the scalp?

 

The supraorbital (medial and lateral branches). superficial temporal and occipital (assisted by the supratrochlear and posterior auricular).

28

Which of them come from the internal carotid artery? Are they direct branches of the internal carotid?

 

A supraorbitals and supratrochlear. No, they are branches of the ophthalmic a.

29

Which of them come from the external carotid artery? Are they direct branches of the external carotid?

 

The superficial temporal, occipital (and posterior auricular) are direct branches of the external carotid.

30

How much of the scalp is supplied by branches of the ophthalmic artery?

 

Just the forehead region. (The corresponding nerves (the supraorbital) supply right back to the vertex).

31

Which arteries anastomose across the sagittal suture?

 

The superficial temporals (thereby limiting the territory of the supraorbital arteries).

32

What veins drain the scalp?

 

Veins running with and having the same names as the arteries.

33

Which drain to the internal jugular vein? How?

 

The superficial temporals (thereby limiting the territory of the supraorbital arteries).

34

Which drain into the external jugular vein?

 

The occipital, posterior auricular and superficial temporal.

35

What nerves supply the scalp?

 

Cranial nerve V and cervical nerve 2.

36

What parts are supplied by cervical nerves?

 

The occipital region up to the vertex.

37

What parts are supplied by cranial nerves? Which cranial nerve?

 

The forehead back to the vertex and the temporal regions. Cranial nerve V, the trigeminal.

38

Which major division of the 5th cranial nerve supplies skin of the temporal region?

 

The mandibular division mainly (with a small contribution from the maxillary division anteriorly).

39

How are the muscles of the scalp innervated?

 

By the VIIth cranial nerve (facial nerve).

40

Are there lymphatics in the scalp?

 

Yes.

41

Where are lymph nodes found close to the scalp? What are the names of the various groups?

 

Around its lower limits, laterally and posteriorly. Preauricular, mastoid and occipital groups.

42

Haemorrhage from the veins piercing the cranial vault (from, for instance, moulding of the skull during birth) is limited to the extent of a single cranial bone. Why?

 

Because the periosteum is bound down tightly at the sutures and this type of bleeding occurs between the periosteum and the particular bone.

43

Gashes to the scalp bleed freely. Why? How would you control the bleeding?

 

Because the arteries are large and are tethered in the dense connective tissue of the scalp. Moderate pressure where the arteries enter the scalp.

44

Infections of sebaceous glands in the scalp are very painful. Why?

 

Because the pus is unable to spread far in the subcutaneous tissue and pressure builds up.

45

Cuts in scalp in a coronal direction gape; those in a sagittal direction don’t. Why?

 

Because the tension in the galea is from front to back because of the way the muscles are arranged.

46

Is the scalp well nourished?

 

Extremely well.

47

Do the bald areas of scalp contain hair follicles?; sebaceous glands? sweat glands?

 

Yes. Yes. Yes.

48

Is there hair on the forehead? If so, what kind?

 

Yes. Normal fine body hair.

49

Are eyebrow hairs different from head hair?

 

No. Both are terminal hair.

50

Do you think you have learned enough about the scalp?

 

 

 

 

The Face

1

What is the posterior limit of the face?

 

The coronal plane immediately behind the rami of the mandible and in front of the vertebral column (plane C) and in the upper 3 cm the plane through the anterior surface of the sphenoid (plane B).

2

What is the upper limit of the face? in anatomy? in lay terms?

 

The eyebrows. The hairline.

3

What is the lower limit of the face?

 

The floor of the mouth.

4

Name the reference blocks comprising the face.

 

Orbital, maxillary, dental; upper nasal, lower nasal, buccal, pharyngeal and pterygoid.

5

Name the three principal areas of contact between the face and the cranium.

 

The frontomaxillary sutures; the frontozygomtic sutures; the pterygopalatine sutures (where, in effect, the body of the maxilla is supported from behind by the pterygoid process).

6

What parts of the face have particularly thin skin?

 

The eyelids (and the external ears, if we include them in the face).

7

How much thinner than average is (i) the epidermis and (ii) the dermis in these areas?

 

Both epidermis and dermis are half the usual thickness (that is, in the eyelids they are about 50  m and 600  m respectively).

8

How thick and dense is the subcutaneous tissue in these regions?

 

In the eyelids very thin and delicate with litte fat. (The subcataneous layer is absent in the pinna except in the lobes).

9

How thick are the lips?

 

12 mm.

10

How thick are the cheeks?

 

12 mm.

11

Does the skin or subcutaneous tissue contribute most to the thicknesses?

 

The subcutaneous layer is 9 - 10 mm thick.

12

How is the extent of the lips defined?

 

They are the area where the skin if FIRMLY bound to the deeper tissues.

13

Are there external markings indicating the extent of the lips?

 

The nasolabial folds and labiomental fold (mental = of the chin).

14

What particular change in the firmness of skin attachment occurs on passing from the lips to the cheeks?

 

The skin becomes somewhat more mobile in the cheeks, but not as free in the front of the neck, for instance.

15

Is the beard different in principal from head hair?

 

No; both are terminal hair with follicles extending into the subcutaneous layer.

16

How much denser is the hair follicle population on the face (and scalp and neck) than elsewhere on the body?

 

10 x.

17

How much denser are the hairs on these parts than elsewhere?

 

About 3 x (many follices are "resting" in a cycle measured in years).

18

Are sweat glands more profuse on the face (and scalp and neck) than elsewhere on the body? why?

 

At least twice as dense. The head and neck are the principal sites of heat loss. Hands next, then feet.

19

What layer of tissue represents the investing fascia in the face?

 

The periosteum of the bones of the face.

20

Is the mucosa of the gums facing the vestibule of the mouth superficial or deep to the investing fascia?

 

Superficial.

21

In what layer do the muscles of facial expression lie?

 

In the deep half of the subcutaneous tissue.

22

What is the posterior limit of this muscle group?

 

The nuchal lines on the occiptal bone.

23

What is the anterior (actually inferior) limit of this group?

 

The chest for a few centimetres below the clavicle; (platysma extends to this level).

24

What is the name of the muscle surrounding and contained in the eyelids?

 

Orbicularis oculi.

25

What is its action?

 

It blinks the eyelids and more forcibly, screws them tight shut.

26

What is the name of the muscle surrounding the mouth?

 

Orbicularis oris.

27

What is its action?

 

It purses the lips.

28

Where do your find the Buccinator muscle?

 

In the cheeks, posterior to orbicularis oris.

29

Is it a muscle of facial expression?

 

Yes.

30

What muscles arise from the zygomatic bone?

 

Zygomaticus major and z. minor passing down into the upper lip.

31

What muscles arise just below the infraorbital margin of the maxilla?

 

Levator labii superious and levator labii superious alaeque nasi (alaeque = and also of the).

32

Where does the Levator anguli oris arise?

 

From the anterior surface of the maxilla BELOW the infraorbital canal.

33

Why is there no "Levator labii inferioris?"

 

The orbicularis oris opposes the depressor of the lower lip. These are ELEVATORS of UPPER lip and DEPRESSORS of LOWER lip.

34

Locate Risorius, Procerus and Corrugator supercilii muscles.

 

At angle of mouth, between eyebrows and under inner end of eyebrows.

35

Can you name any other muscles in the face?

 

Compressor naris, Mentalis, Depressor anguli oris, Platysma.

36

Describe the extent of Platysma.

 

From corner of mouth to upper chest.

37

From which vessel does the facial artery arise?

 

The external carotid artery.

38

Is the first part of its course superficial or deep to the mandible?

 

Deep.

39

Where does it cross the lower border of the mandible?

 

Immediately in front of the Masseter muscle.

40

What is the inner canthus of the eye?

 

The inner angle where the two eyelids meet.

41

In its course to the inner canthus does the facial artery run superficial to, deep to or in amongst the muscles of facial expression?

 

Amongst.

42

Name its branches arising near the angle of the mouth.

 

The superior and inferior labial arteries.

43

Where does the facial vein terminate? Does it ever lie deep to the mandible?

 

In the internal jugular vein (usually having coalesced with the lingual vein). No.

44

Name three separate groups of lymph nodes in the face.

 

Parotid, submandibular; mental.

45

To which group do the outer parts of the eyelids mainly drain?

 

Parotid.

46

To which group do the inner parts of the eyelids mainly drain?

 

Submandibular.

47

To which group does the upper lip mainly drain?

 

Submandibular.

48

To which group does the lower lip mainly drain?

 

Mental.

49

Which nerve is sensory to the upper eyelid?

 

Ophthalmic division of trigeminal (V1).

50

Which nerve is sensory to the lower eyelid?

 

Maxillary division of trigeminal (V2).

51

Which nerve is sensory to the upper lip?

 

Maxillary, V2.

52

Which nerve is sensory to the lower lip?

 

Mandibular divisiion of trigeminal V3.

53

Which nerve is sensory to the dorsum ("leading edge") of the nose?

 

The external nasal branch of V1 (via anterior ethmoidal).

54

Which nerve is motor to the muscles of facial expression?

 

Facial nerve (VII).

55

Do you think that that is enough questioning about the face?

 

 

 

The Orbit

1

Which bones contribute to the roof of the orbit?

 

Frontal, sphenoid.

2

Which bones contribute to the floor of the orbit?

 

Maxilla, Zygomatic (and palatine).

3

Which bones contribute to the medial wall of the orbit?

 

Maxilla (frontal process), lacrimal, ethmoid and sphenoid.

4

Which bones contribute to the lateral wall of the orbit?

 

Sphenoid and Zygomatic.

5

What bony elements bound the superior orbital fissure?

 

Greater and lesser wings and body of sphenoid.

6

What bony elements bound the inferior orbital fissure?

 

Great wing of sphenoids, zygomatic, maxilla and body of sphenoid.

7

Which bones bound the bony nasolacrimal canal?

 

Lacrimal, maxilla and inferior concha.

8

What bony elements bound the optic canal?

 

The root of lesser wing and body of sphenoid.

9

What is the diameter of the eye ball?

 

24 mm.

10

In which part of the orbit does the eyeball lie?

 

In the anterior half (of its length).

11

How closely does it approach the orbital walls?

 

To within 6 mm.

12

What is the bulbar fascia or Tenon’s capsule?

 

The connective tissue lining of the fibrofatty socket for the eye.

13

About which point does the eyeball move?

 

Its centre.

14

Name the two major refracting elements of the eye.

 

The cornea and lens.

15

What medium surrounds the iris?

 

Aqueous humour.

16

What medium surrounds the optic nerve?

 

Cerebrospinal fluid.

17

Where is the dura attached to the eyeball?

 

Immediately medial to the posterior pole.

18

Where do most of the nerves and arteries enter the eyeball?

 

Immediately about the dural sheath of N.II.

19

To what bony elements is the fibrous annulus (of Zinn) attached?

 

The body, lesser wing and, by a small area, the great wing of the sphenoid.

20

In what direction does teh superior rectus muscle run?

 

Fowards and laterally, at an angle of 22½° to sagittal plane.

21

In which quadrant of the eyeball does the superior oblique muscle insert?

 

Postero-supero-lateral quadrant.

22

Where does the inferior oblique muscle arise?

 

Immediately lateral to the nasolacrimal canal.

23

Where does it insert?

 

Into the horizontal meridian immediately lateral to the posterior pole of the eye.

24

Which muscle is innervated by the 4th cranial nerve? by the 6th cranial nerve?

 

The superior oblique; the lateral rectus.

25

How long approximately are the rectus muscles? How wide?

 

40 mm; 10 mm.

26

Name three nerves lying between the orbital roof and the fibrous annulus.

 

Lacrimal, frontal and trochlear nerves.

27

Name three nerves passing through the fibrous annulus. Which one of these has divided into two divisions?

 

Oculomotor, masociliary and abducens nerves. The oculomotor is divided.

28

Briefly describe the course of the ophthalmic artery.

 

Through optic canal, along lateral side of optic nerve, over nerve at midpoint to medial wall, then forwards.

29

Which nerve follows essentially the same course?

 

The nasociliary nerve (but enters orbit through superior orbital fissure).

30

Where is the ciliary ganglion located?

 

Just lateral to optic nerve, several millimeters behind the eye.

31

What type of neurons does it contain?

 

Parasympathetic post-ganglionic neurons.

32

What structures does it supply?

 

The smooth muscle of the ciliary body and iris.

33

What type of tissue fills the interstices of the orbital cavity?

 

Delicate fibrofatty tissue.

34

Name the firm connective tissue structures forming the basis of the eyelids.

 

The tarsal plates.

35

What covers the deep surface of these structures?

 

Conjunctiva.

36

What muscle is found in the eyelids?

 

Orbicularis oculi + levator palpebrae superiorus.

37

How many rows of eyelashes are present in each lid?

 

Two or three.

38

Where are the tarsal (Meibomian) glands situated?

 

In deep grooves in the tarsal plates.

39

At what level does the upper lid lie in relation to this iris and pupil? At what level does the lower lid lie?

 

Between the top of iris and top of pupil. Just at the bottom of the ribs.

40

What is the vertical and horizontal extent of the conjunctival sac?

 

About 30 mm each way.

41

Name the structure about which the lacrimal gland is folded or clamped?

 

The tendon of the levator palpebrae superioris.

42

Do ducts arise from both parts?

 

Yes.

43

Where do these ducts open?

 

Into the lateral half of the superior conjunctival fornix.

44

Where are the puncta of the lacrimal ducts located?

 

At the medial end of the rows of eyelashes.

45

Where do the lacrimal ducts run?

 

Within the substance of the medial palpebral ligament.

46

Where does the lacrimal sac lie?

 

In the fossa formed by the lacrimal bone and frontal process of the maxilla.

47

What is the direction of the lateral palpebral ligament?

 

Forwards from the orbital margin.

48

To what bony structure is the medial palpebral ligament attached?

 

Over an area several mm in diameter on the frontal process of the maxilla.

49

Set your own question and answer it.

 

 

 

 

 

The Mouth

1

Which reference planes bound the mouth?

 

3, 4, A, B and R (each side)

2

Which reference planes bound the buccal cavity?

 

3, 4, A, B, and P (each side)

3

What are the functions of the mouth?

 

Food and liquid intake; accessory air intake; articulation in speech; (investigating environment).

4

Which muscles forms the foundation of the cheek?

 

Buccinator.

5

What is its nerve supply?

 

The facial (VIIth) nerve.

6

Which muscle forms the foundation of the lips?

 

Orbicularis oris.

7

About how thick are the lips and cheeks?

 

12 mm

8

What type of epithelium is found on the mucosa of the mouth?

 

Non-keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium.

9

What is the name of the region of the mouth bounded by the lips and cheeks on the one hand and the teeth and gums on the other?

 

Vesibule of the mouth.

10

What is the name of the region of the mouth bounded by the tongue on the one hand and the lower teeth and gums on the other?

 

Linguo-alveolar groove.

11

Which bones contribute to the hard palate?

 

Maxilla and palatine.

12

Name the five major bony elements of the mandible (three are bilateral).

 

Head, coronoid process, ramus, body and alveolar process.

13

Name the four types of teeth in the adult dentition.

 

Incisors, canines, premolars and molars.

14

Which belong to the "anterior teeth"?

 

Incisors and canines.

15

Which belong to the "cheek teeth"?

 

Premolars and molars.

16

How many roots on an upper permanent molar? What are their positions?

 

3; lingual, mesiobuccal and distobuccal.

17

How many roots on a lower molar? What are their positions?

 

2; mesial and distal.

18

Which nerves supply the upper cheek teeth?

 

The posterior superior alveolar nerves (2 or 3).

19

Which nerve supplies the mucous membrane of the gum immediately lateral to the upper molars?

 

One of the posterior alveolar nerves (which doesn’t supply teeth).

20

Briefly describe the course of the nerve supplying the upper incisors and canine.

 

It curves downwards and medially from infraorbital nerve in anterior face of maxilla, passing just below the opening of the nose.

21

Which nerve supplies the gum immediately lateral to the lower molars?

 

The buccal nerve.

22

Which nerve supplies the mucosa of the part of the vestibule related to the lower anterior teeth?

 

The mental nerve.

23

Which nerve supplies the skin of the lower lip and chin?

 

The mental nerve.

24

Which nerve supplies the skin of the upper lip and the related mucous membrane?

 

The infraorbital nerve.

25

Which nerve supplies the mucosa of the roof of the mouth (hard palate)?

 

The greater palatine nerve.

26

Which nerve supplies the mucosa of the floor of the mouth including that of the buccal part (anterior two-thirds) of the tongue?

 

The lingual nerve.

27

Which artery supplies the hard palate?

 

The greater palatine artery.

28

Which artery supplies the floor of the mouth?

 

The lingual artery.

29

Which arteries supply the upper teeth?

 

The superior alveolar arteries.

30

Which artery supplies the lower teeth?

 

The inferior alveolar artery.

31

Where does that artery arise?

 

From the maxillary artery in the pterygoid region.

32

Which lymph nodes receive lymph from the mouth?

 

Retropharyngeal, submandibular and submental.

33

Name the nerve supplying the muscles of the tongue.

 

Hypoglossal (Cranial nerve XII).

34

Where does it arise?

 

From the anterior aspect of the medulla.

35

How does it leave the cranium?

 

Through the hypoglossal (anterior condylar) canal.

36

How low does it descend in the neck?

 

To the level of the great horn of the hyoid bone.

37

What special features are there of the mucosa of the dorsum of the tongue?

 

Papillae.

38

Is there a submucosa in the tongue?

 

No.

39

Which salivary gland opens into the vestibule?

 

The parotid.

40

Which salivary glands open into the buccal cavity?

 

The submandibular and sublingual glands.

41

Which gland has its duct opening near the second upper molar tooth?

 

The parotid.

42

Which gland has its duct opening below and behind the medial lower incisor?

 

The submandibular.

43

Which salivary gland has little mucus in its secretion?

 

The parotid.

44

What muscle forms the floor of the mouth?

 

The mylohyoid.

45

Where does its nerve supply arise?

 

From the inferior alveolar nerve.

46

Which other muscles lie in the floor of the mouth?

 

The anterior belly of digastric; the geniohyoid.

47

From which embryological structure does the floor of the mouth arise?

 

The mandibular (1st) arch.

48

From which embryological structure does the roof of the mouth arise?

 

The maxillary process of the mandibular arch.

49

Into which region does the mouth open posteriorly?

 

The isthmus of the fauces (of the pharynx).

50

Do you require any further questions on the mouth?

 

 

 

 

The Nose

1

Name the planes bounding the lower nasal block.

 

2, 3, A, B, and P (on each side).

2

Which bones enclose the olfactory part of the nose?

 

The ethmoid, with sphenoid behind and maxilla and nasal bones in front.

3

Name the bones contributing to the external nose.

 

Nasal bones and maxillae.

4

Name two major cartilages of the external nose.

 

Lateral nasal (from septal) and greater alar cartilage.

5

What is the name of the region immediately inside the nostril?

 

The vestibule of the nose.

6

Which bones contribute to the nasal septum?

 

Ethmoid and vomer.

7

What other component contributes to the skeleton of the nasal septum?

 

The septal cartilage.

8

Which is the largest nerve on the septum? Where does it end?

 

The nasopalatine; on the incisive pad.

9

About how wide (from medial to lateral) is the frontal sinus?

 

30 mm

10

In which part(s) of the frontal bone does it lie?

 

In the squama (underlying the forehead) and in the orbital plate.

11

Where does it open into the nose?

 

Into the anterior part of the infundibulum (c.60%) or immediately in front of it into middle meatus (c.40%).

12

Which is the longest meatus?

 

The inferior.

13

Which is the shortest?

 

The superior (or supreme meatus if present).

14

What structure forms the lower part of the lateral wall of the middle meatus?

 

The uncinate process.

15

What structure forms the upper part?

 

The bulla.

16

Name the gap between these two.

 

The hiatus semilunaris.

17

Where do the posterior ethmoidal air cells open?

 

Into the superior meatus.

18

What do we call the region on each side from which the sphenoidal air sinus opens.

 

The sphenoethmoidal recess.

19

Which is the most voluminous paranasal air sinus?

 

The maxillary sinus.

20

Where does it communicate with the nose?

 

In the infundibulum.

21

What structures traverse the cribriform plate?

 

The olfactory nerves and the anterior ethmoidal nerve and vessels.

22

Name the cranial nerve supplying the nose?

 

The trigeminal.

23

Which area does its first division supply?

 

The external nose.

24

What is the extent of the olfactory sensory area?

 

Over the superior and much of middle concha and opposing parts of septum.

25

Name the branch of the maxillary artery supplying the nose.

 

The sphenopalatine artery.

26

Name the nerves supplying the superior and middle conchae.

 

The posterior superior lateral nasal nerves.

27

What type of epithelium lines the nasal cavity (except the lower vestibule)?

 

Respiratory epithelium.

28

Describe the nature of the nasal mucosa.

 

Thick and vascular, with many glands.

29

Which nerves supply skin of the external nose?

 

The external nasal branch of the anterior ethmoidal nerve; the infractrochlear; and the external nasal branches of the infraorbital nerve.

30

Which of them supply skin inside the nostril?

 

Those of the infraorbital nerve.

31

What areas of the nose are supplied by the anterior superior alveolar nerve?

 

Small areas on the lateral and septal walls at the anterior end of the inferior concha and the floor between.

32

What supports the mucosa of the lateral wall of the choanal part of the nose?

 

The medial pterygoid plate.

33

Which reference planes bound the choanal part of the nose in front, and above?

 

Plane B and Plane 2.

34

Which nerves supply this part of the nose?

 

The posterior nasal branches of the pterygopalatine ganglion.

35

To what structures are the lateral nasal cartilages attached?

 

They are continuous with the septal cartilage and are firmly attached to the nasal bones and the frontal process of the maxilla.

 


Aortic Arch Derivatives:

1st: part of MAXillary artery
2nd: stapedial artery and hyoid artery
3rd: Common carotid artery and proximal internal carotid
4th: on left, aortic arch; on right, proximal right subclavian
6th: proximal part of pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus

1st arch is MAXimal
Second = Stapedial
C is third letter of the alphabet
4th arch (4 limbs) = systemic
6th arch = pulmonary and pulmonary-to-systemic shunt (ductus arteriosus)

Mastication Muscles (all innervated by V3):
- Masseter, teMporalis, Medial pterygoid (these close jaw)
- lateral pterygoid (this is the only one that lowers)
- In summary, M's munch. Lateral Lowers.

Palat muscles:
All muscles with palat in their name (except tensor veli palatini via CN V) are innervated by CN X. [Explained in branchial stuff below]

Glossus muscles:
All muscles with glossus in their name (except palatoglossus via CN X) are innervated by CN XII. [Also explained below]

Carotid Sheath:
You've seen it before: VAN
- Internal Jugular vein (lateral)
- Common carotid (medial)
- Vagus Nerve (posterior)

Branchial Stuff (with mnemonics):

Branchial Clefts derived from ectoderm
Branchial Arches derived from mesoderm and neural crest
Branchial Pouches derived from endoderm

CAP covers from outside to inside: Cleft = ecto, Arch = meso, Pouch = endo

Arches (mesoderm):

Branchial arch 1 derivatives: (lots of M's)
Meckel's cartilage: Mandible, Malleus, incus, sphenoMandibular ligament
Muscles: Muscles of Mastication (temporalis, Masseter, lateral and Medial pterygoids), Mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini
Nerve: CN V3 (V2 also involved)

Branchial arch 2 derivatives: (lots of S's)
Reichert's cartilage: Stapes, Styloid process, leSSer horn of hyoid, Stylohyoid ligament
Muscles: muscles of Silly facial expression, Stapedius, Stylohyoid, poSterior belly of digastric
Nerve: CN VII

Branchial arch 3 derivatives: (This is the easiest one)
Cartilage: greater horn of hyoid
Muscle: stylopharyngeus
Nerve: CN IX (think of pharynx - stylopharyngeus innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve)

Branchial arch 4 to 6 derivatives:
Cartilage: thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, corniculate, cuneiform
Muscle: pharyngeal constrictors, cricothyroid, levator veli palatini, intrinsic muscles of larynx, trapezius, SCM (See note below)
Nerve: 4th arch - CN X, 6th arch - recurrent laryngeal branch of X (See note below about XI)

Note: All of the intrinsic muscles of larynx innervated by the inferior laryngeal nerve of CN X (a continuation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve) EXCEPT the cricothyroid muscle, innervated by external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (branch of CN X). The cricothyroid specifically comes from the 4th arch, and that is why it has separate nerve innervation than the intrinsic laryngeal muscles which come specifically from the 6th arch. But if asked on an exam, just group all of these muscles into 4th-6th arch.

Note: When we talk about arch 4 and 6, it is acceptable to lump everything together into one big group: 4-6. You will see in your green notes that X and XI are nerves of the 4th-6th arch. Technically speaking, the accessory fibers of XI are the motor fibers that are carried by the vagus to the muscles of the larynx. So, when asked about the nerve of the 4th - 6th arch, just say X(XI). See p 180 green notes, Netter 121.

Note: Branchial Arch 5 makes no developmental contributions.

Summary:
Arch 1: V2, V3
Arch 2: VII
Arch 3: IX
Arch 4, 6: X(XI)

Note: This is the simplest way to conceptualize head/neck muscle innervation. Actually, this is analogous to compartmentalization of the limbs.

Clefts (ectoderm):

1st cleft: external auditory meatus
2nd - 4th clefts: temporary cervical sinuses, obliterated ultimately by 2nd arch mesenchyme

Note: Persistent cervical sinus can lead to branchial cyst in the neck

Pouches (endoderm):

1st pouch: middle ear cavity, eustachian tube, mastoid air cells (endoderm lined structures of the ear)
2nd pouch: palatine tonsil epithelium
3rd pouch: inferior parathyroids (from dorsal wings), thymus (from ventral wings)
4th pouch: superior parathyroids
5th pouch: ultimobranchial bodies - This is where a subset of neural crest cells migrate to ultimately become the C cells of the thyroid (calcitonin producing cells, part of the neuroendocrine system -HISTOLOGY correlation)

"Mnemonic": 3rd pouch: 3 structures - thymus, Left and Right inferior Parathyroids

Pretrematics:

Remember that each arch has a cranial nerve (discussed above)
There are pretrematic branches of these nerves that "invade" the arch right before it.

1. Ophthalmic division of V1 leaves V2 and V3 behind in the first arch and associates with the optic cup in front of the first arch (gives us tactile sensation to the eye)

2. A pretrematic from arch 2 (VII territory) invades arch 1 (V3 territory). This is the chorda tympani (VII) which joins the lingual nerve (V3) and gives us taste.

3. A pretrematic from arch 3 (IX territory) invades arch 2 (VII territory). This is the tympanic nerve (IX) which provides sensory innervation to the middle ear and auditory tube. Also remember the tympanic plexus which is a mix of VII and IX nerves (Netter 117, 119)

Cervical Plexus / Ansa Cervicalis (Netter 27)

Plexus divided into muscular and cutaneous branches
Cutaneous (C2-3): Great auricular, lesser occipital, transverse cervical nerves
Cutaneous (C3-4): Supraclavicular nerves
Motor: Ansa Cervicalis (C1-3) - innervates infrahyoid (strap) muscles of the neck; and Phrenic nerve (C3-5)

Muscles innervated by ansa (C1-3):
-geniohyoid (C1 via hypoglossal nerve)
-thyrohyoid (C1 via hypoglossal nerve; remember that XII travels right on top of the ansa - the superior root of the ansa is actually called the descendens hypoglossi) These are the only two hyoids innervated by C1 via XII.
-sternothyroid (C1-3)
-sternohyoid (C1-3)
-omohyoid (C1-3)

What hyoid muscles are not innervated by the ansa?
- mylohyoid (1st arch, V3)
- stylohyoid (2nd arch VII (cervical branch))

Thyroid Stuff:

Thyroid develops from the thyroid diverticulum which forms in the floor of the foregut (no branchial pouches involved), descends into neck.

Connected to tongue by thyroglossal duct - disappears and becomes foramen cecum

Most common ectopic thyroid site is tongue

Tongue Stuff:

Anterior 2/3 formed from 1st branchial arch. Therefore, tactile sensation via V3, taste via VII. (The chorda tympani joins lingual nerve).
Posterior 1/3 formed from 3rd and 4th arches. Therefore, sensation and taste mostly via IX, most posterior via X.
All motor from XII.

Cleft Lip/Palate:

Cleft lip - failure of fusion of maxillary and medial nasal processes
Cleft palate - failure of fusion of lateral palatine processes, nasal septum, and/or median palatine process

Larynx:

7 muscles you need to know:

Cricothyroid - stretch and tense vocal cord (only muscle innervated by external laryngeal n.)
Posterior Cricoarytenoid - (only muscle to ABduct vocal cord)
Lateral Cricoarytenoid - ADduct vocal fold
Thyroarytenoid - relax vocal fold
Vocalis (formed from thyroarytenoid) - alters fold during phonation
Oblique arytenoid - close inlet
Transverse arytenoid - close inlet (oblique and transverse perform same task)

Motor: All muscles except cricothyroid (external branch of superior laryngeal n.) innervated by recurrent laryngeal n. All X(XI).
Sensory: The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve will receive sensory information above the vocal fold where the recurrent will receive sensory info below the folds.

Parasympathetics and Ganglia:

The important take home point: the trigeminal nerve acts as a carrier for parasympathetic fibers from III, VII, IX. The trigeminal itself contains no inherent parasympathetic activity.

The major function of parasympathetics in the head is to act as secretomotor to the lacrimal gland, salivary glands, and mucus glands of the oral and nasal cavities and sinuses. It will increase secretion.

VII (Netter 117):
The origin of parasympathetic fibers in VII comes from the nervus intermedius. It merges with the facial nerve at the sensory geniculate ganglion. The greater petrosal nerve continues on and merges with the deep petrosal nerve (totally sympathetic, postganglionic coming off the carotid plexus) in the pterygoid canal to form the vidian nerve. The vidian nerve enters the pterygopalatine ganglion and parasympathetics synapse. Postganglionic autonomics exit the fossa via V2 through five exits (listed below) to get to the mucus glands of nose and palate, and lacrimal gland.

Two entrances of the Pterygopalatine Fossa:
Pterygoid Canal (vidian nerve)
Entrance of maxillary nerve through foramen rotundum

Five Exits of the Pterygopalatine Fossa:
Sphenopalatine foramen - (nasal branches of V2 going to nasal cavity)
Greater palatine foramen - (greater palatine n. of V2 going to hard palate)
Lesser palatine foramen - (lesser palatine n. of V2 going to soft palate)
Inferior orbital fissure - (zygomatic n. of V2 going to lacrimal gland)
Palatovaginal canal - (pharyngeal branch of V2 going to nasopharynx)
 

Cranial Nerve Lesions:

VII Lesion (Bell's Palsy) - cannot operate muscles of facial expression. Affected muscles on same side of lesion
X lesion - Ask to say "Ah" - uvula will point away from lesion
XI lesion - head will be turned toward lesion (SCM action)
XII lesion - stick out tongue - tongue will point to lesion

Cranial Foramina:

Know the foramina for all of the cranial nerves. In addition, know the stylomastoid foramen, petrotympanic fissure, and foramen spinosum and their contents.

Clinical Correlations:

I suspect a patient is faking neck injury. How can I tell?
    - Most patients do not know about the function of the SCM. The contralateral muscle turns the head away from it. First. ask the patient to shrug his/her shoulders (trapezius, XI). Say for example the patient cannot shrug the left shoulder. Ask the patient to turn his/her head left or right (SCM, XI) If the patient says he/she has trouble turning the head to the left, the person is faking. If he/she cannot turn it to the right, the injury is probably real.

What are some significant features of the carotid bifurcation?
    - Location of the carotid body - an oxygen chemoreceptor - sensory info carried back to CNS via CN IX, X
    - Location of carotid sinus - a pressure receptor - sensory info carried to CNS via CN IX, X
    - Place where clots can form (think turbulent flow). Performing a bilateral carotid massage on an older patient may actually throw emboli into the circle of Willis. A lot of good your anastomoses are going to do in this situation...

What would be the clinical presentation of a patient with bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve damage?
    - Acute dyspnea - the vocal muscles have stretched and tensed from unopposed cricothyroid, closing off the airway.

What structure must I puncture in a tracheotomy?
    - Cricothyroid ligament

What are three symptoms from evulsed T1 (besides clawhand)
    - ptosis
    - miosis
    - anhydrosis

Why does both a sympathetic and parasympathetic lesion to the eye cause ptosis?
    - levator palpebrae superioris (skeletal muscle - innervated by CN III)
    - tarsal or Mueller's muscle (smooth muscle - innervated by sympathetics)

Questions:

1. Which of the following courses through the jugular foramen?

A. CN VII
B. inferior sagittal sinus
C. middle meningeal artery
D. straight sinus
E. CN X

2. The chorda tympani branch of CN VII carries:

A. motor fibers to the stapedius muscle
B. parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland
C. sensation from the tympanic membrane
D. taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
E. taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue

3. Sensory innervation of the larynx is by branches from the

A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN VIII
D. CN IX
E. CN X

4. In a patient with an aneurysm of the aortic arch associated with hoarseness, one would immediately look for paralysis of the left:

A. anterior belly of the digastric muscle
B. cricothyroid muscle
C. posterior belly of the digastric muscle
D. posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
E. omohyoid muscle

5. Following a blow to the side of the head, extradural hemorrhage is usually caused by bleeding from the:

A. cavernous sinus
B. emissary veins (connections between intracranial sinuses and external veins)
C. middle cerebral artery
D. middle meningeal vessels
E. superior sagittal sinus

6. A patient with Bell Palsy (paralysis of CN VII) experiences food collecting in his oral vestibule. Paralysis of which muscle is most likely causing this muscle?

A. buccinator
B. masseter
C. mentalis
D. orbicularis oris
E. zygomaticus major

7. Pain impulses from the tip of the tongue would most likely be carried to neurons in which of the following ganglia?

A. geniculate
B. otic
C. pterygopalatine
D. superior vagal
E. trigeminal

8. Each of the following nerves supplies muscle derived from the branchial arches EXCEPT the

A. VII
B. IX
C. XII
D. V
E. X

9. Congenital absence of the parathyroids is most likely accompanied by absence or poor development of the

A. lungs
B. Anterior pituitary
C. thyroid gland
D. nasopharyngeal portions of the eustachian tube
E. thymus

10. Endoderm contributes to the formation of each of the following EXCEPT the

A. eustachian tube
B. liver
C. parathyroid glands
D. tooth enamel
E. trachea

11. In a newborn, obstruction of the pharynx caused by a large mass in the posterior third of the tongue is most likely a result of

A. branchial cyst
B. ectopic parathyroid tissue
C. ectopic thymic tissue
D. ectopic thyroid tissue
E. hypertrophied lymphoid tissue

12-14. Mechanisms involved in swallowing:

A. Closure of nasopharynx from oropharynx
B. Depression of the larynx and hypopharynx to produce negative pressure in the pharynx
C. Elevation of the larynx and hypopharynx
D. Movement of a bolus of food posteriorly into oropharynx
E. Protection of the airway

12. Styloglossus muscle

13. Tensor veli palatini and superior constrictor muscles

14. Stylohyoid and digastric muscles

Questions with more than one answer:

15. A fracture of the cribriform plates that tears the meninges is likely ot result in
A. loss of sense of smell
B. rupture of nasolacrimal duct
C. leakage of CSF into nasal cavity
D. injury to maxillary division of  CN V

16. The nerve supply of the tongue is derived, in part, from the nerve of the:
A. First branchial arch (V3)
B. Second arch (VII)
C. Third arch (IX)
D. Fourth arch (X)

17. The first branchial arch contributes to the formation of the:
A. malleus and incus
B. maxilla and mandible
C. muscles of mastication
D. muscles of facial expression

18. The intermaxillary segment of the developing upper jaw contributes to the formation of:
A. Philthrum of the lip
B. Primary or anterior palate
C. Premaxillary part of the maxilla
D. Posterior or secondary palate