HEMATOLOGY QUESTION
1/ Genes for the ABO and Rh blood types are on different chromosomes. The A and B alleles are codominant with the O allele being recessive, while the Rh+ allele is dominant to the Rh- allele. A male with blood type AB+ (whose father was type B-) marries a female with blood type O- (whose father was type A+). What is the probability that their first child will be type B-?
a. 0 %
b. 25 %
c. 50 %
d. 75 %
e. 37.5 %
2/ The term that refers to the percentage of packed erythrocytes per unit volume of blood is the:
1. Differential Count
2. Hemoglobin
3. Hematocrit
4. Hemopoiesis
3/ Which of the following is a circulating blood cell that is capable of differentiating into a plasma cell?
1. Neutrophil
2. Basophil
3. B lymphocyte
4. T lymphocyte
5. Monocyte
4/ The component of plasma responsible for maintaining the osmotic pressure of blood is:
1. Plasmin
2. Albumin
3. Fibrinogen
4. Gamma globulin
5. Plasminogen activator
5/ Erythrocytes:
1. Enter the circulation only after becoming fully mature
2. Undergo mitosis in the circulation in response to erythropoietin
3. Are removed from the circulation after about 120 days by macrophages
in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow
4. Have mitochondria and are capable of oxidative respiration
5. None of the above
6/ Plasma is:
1. Blood that has no red blood cells
2. The liquid portion of blood including the clotting factors
3. The liquid portion of blood minus the clotting factors
4. The proteins of blood
7/ Excessive destruction of erythrocytes is characteristic of:
1. Thalassemia
2. Aplastic anemia
3. Pernicious anemia
4. Hemolytic anemia
8/ A hematocrit of 80 would be considered:
1. Polycythemia
2. Anemia
3. Thrombocytopenia
4. Leukemia
9/ During hemoglobin recycling in the spleen, heme is initially converted into:
1. Bilirubin
2. Stercobilin
3. Urobilin
4. Urobilinogen
10/ The Fe3+ portion of the hemoglobin is eventually:
1. Converted into transferrin in the large intestine
2. Converted into ferritin in the kidney
3. Excreted from the body
4. All of the above
5. None of the above
11/ An increased neutrophil count is typically associated with:
1. An ongoing bacterial infection
2. Neutropenia
3. Allergic reactions
4. An ongoing parasitic infection
12/ ________________ eventually become macrophages.
1. Neutrophils
2. Basophils
3. Monocytes
4. Macrocytes
5. Lymphocytes
13/ Hypoxia induces the kidneys to produce:
1. Platelets
2. Thrombopoietin
3. Erythrocytes
4. Erythropoietin
5. Intrinsic Factor
14/ The first phase of hemostasis is:
1. Separation of globin and heme
2. Activation of Prothrombin
3. Platelet aggregation
4. Vascular spasm
15/ Which of the following activates platelets during hemostasis?
1. Eosinophil degranulation
2. Exposed collagen or endothelial basement membrane
3. Fibrin thread formation
4. Thromboplastin
16/ The phase of coagulation that begins with exposed endothelial collagen is the:
1. Extrinsic pathway
2. Intrinsic pathway
3. Common pathway
4. Fibrin stabilization phase
17/ An individual with type B+ blood has which of the following antibodies in their blood?
1. anti-A and anti-O
2. anti-B and anti-Rh
3. anti-A
4. anti-B
5. anti-Rh
18/Which of the following blood cells have some properties similar to connective tissue mast cells?
1. Basophils
2. Neutrophils
3. Eosinophils
4. Lymphocytes>
5. Monocytes
19/ Examples of erythrocytes can be found in almost all histological sections. Therefore, knowledge of the approximate diameter of a red blood cell is useful because it can serve as a built-in ruler on the tissue section. Which of the following best describes the diameter of red cells?
1. 5-6um
2. 6-7um
3. 7-8um
4. 8-9um
5. 9-10um
MATCHING. Select from the following terms. Some may be used more than once or not at all!
1. Lymphocytes
2. Monocytes
3. Eosinophils
4. Basophils
5. Neutrophils
6. All of the above
21 Leukocytes
22 Least numerous of the circulating leukocytes
23 First line of cellular defense against a bacterial invasion
24 Found in the buffy coat in a hematocrit tube
25 Most numerous of the circulating leukocytes
26 Specific granules contain heparin and histamine
27 Capable of diapedesis
28 May be found in loose connective tissue
29 Together, leukocytes and platelets comprise approximately _____ percent of total blood volume.
1. 1
2. 15
3. 23
4. 10
30 Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?
1. Increased tissue demand for O2
2. Decreased tissue demand for O2
3. An increased number of RBCs
4. Moving from a high altitude to a lower altitude
31 An individual who is blood type AB negative:
1. Can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
2. Can donate to all blood types in moderate amounts
3. Can receive types A, B, and AB but not type O
4. Can donate to types A, B, and AB but not to type O
32 Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?
1. Vascular spasm
2. Fibrinolysis
3. Platelet plug formation
4. Coagulation
33 Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
1. They are nucleated
2. They have lobed mitochondria
3. They have cytoplasmic granules
4. They are phagocytic
34. Blood is a type of _____________ tissue and _____________ is the matrix.
a. epithelial, plasma
b. epithelial, formed element
c. connective, plasma
d. connective, formed element
e. None of the above responses is correct.
35. Cindy was in an automobile accident, and injuries to her abdomen caused extensive damage to her liver.
As a result, her blood is having difficulty transporting certain molecules in the plasma. Which one of the
following molecules is likely to be affected?
a. lipid
b. glucose
c. epinephrine
d. amino acid
e. Damage to the liver affects RBC’s, but it should not affect the plasma.
36. Joe is a 25-year-old male construction worker. Joe’s hematocrit is 48%. Given this information, which
of the following statements is true?
a. Joe’s red blood cell count is abnormally low.
b. Erythrocytes account for 48% of Joe’s formed elements.
c. Erythrocytes occupy about 48% of Joe’s whole blood.
d. Joe is suffering from some form of anemia.
e. None of the responses above is correct.
37. Which of the following cells lacks a nucleus and is normally found in the bone marrow?
a. hemocytoblast
b. lymphoid stem cell
c. erythroblast
d. reticulocyte
e. None of the responses above is correct.
38. Which one of the following molecules typically does NOT contain iron atoms?
a. bilirubin
b. ferritin
c. heme
d. hemosiderin
39. Sean just spent two months training to run a marathon. During his training time he lived in Denver,
Colorado, where the altitude is over 5,000 feet. At the end of his training period, Sean’s physician did a
blood test on Sean, but the physician mixed up Sean’s results with four other patients. Which set of the
results below is most likely Sean’s?
a. hematocrit 45%; hemoglobin 14 g/dl; leukocytes 7500 per mm3
b. hematocrit 58%; hemoglobin 21 g/dl; leukocytes 7300 per mm3
c. hematocrit 39%; hemoglobin 12 g/dl; leukocytes 7600 per mm3
d. hematocrit 56%; hemoglobin 12 g/dl; leukocytes 7250 per mm3
e. hematocrit 40%; hemoglobin 22 g/dl; leukocytes 7400 per mm3
40. Which type of leukocyte is most abundant in normal blood?
a. basophil
b. eosinophil
c. lymphocyte
d. monocyte
e. neutrophil
41. Which type of leukocyte is best adapted to fighting multicellular parasites?
a. basophil
b. eosinophil
c. lymphocyte
d. monocyte
e. neutrophil
42. Janice, a 26-year-old woman, has a CBC with differential white count performed on her blood. The
results are shown below:
![](Symb075c00b700f000000000.png) Neutrophils 10,000
![](Symb075c00b700f000000000.png) Eosinophils 395
![](Symb075c00b700f000000000.png) Basophils 975
![](Symb075c00b700f000000000.png) Lymphocytes 3,000
![](Symb075c00b700f000000000.png) Monocytes 1,200
Test results also show high levels of a particular chemical in Janice’s blood. Which one of the following
chemicals is most likely at abnormally high levels in Janice’s blood?
a. fibrinogen
b. platelet-derived growth factor
c. histamine
d. calcium
e. All of the chemicals given above should be at abnormally high levels.
43. Which one of the following is NOT a function of platelets?
a. produce fibrinogen at the site of injury
b. formation of a temporary patch at the site of injury
c. release various clotting factors to promote clot formation
d. release calcium ions to promote clot formation
e. contract the blood vessel at the site of injury
44. _________________ are involved in the production of erythrocytes, leukocytes (all five types), and
platelets.
a. Myeloid stem cells
b. Megakaryocytes
c. Monoblasts
d. Erythroblasts
e. Hemocytoblasts
45 A chemical that inhibits contractions of cells in the tunica media
a. will directly inhibit the coagulation phase of hemostasis.
b. will directly inhibit the platelet phase of hemostasis.
c. will directly inhibit the vascular phase of hemostasis.
d. will have no effect on hemostasis.
46 The natural process of breaking up a blood clot is called
a. fibrinolysis.
b. hemolysis.
c. thrombolysis.
d. hemophilia.
47 A 64-year-old man presents with splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy,
persistent fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Bone marrow aspiration and
biopsy are scheduled. Which of the following would be the best place to
sample bone marrow?
a. Iliac crest
b. Sternum
c. Scapula
d. Humerus
e. Tibia
48 Erythrocytes may have abnormal shapes and sizes in certain diseases.
In iron deficiency you would expect to see which of the following?
a. Microcytic, hypochromatic anemia with smaller mature erythrocytes
b. Macrocytic, hyperchromatic anemia with fewer, larger mature erythrocytes
c. Poikilocytosis and more fragile erythrocytes
d. Spherocytosis
e. No change in erythrocyte size or shape, but a substantial drop in the hematocrit
49 A 43-year-old woman who has suffered from diabetes for 30 years
comes into the clinic. Her hematocrit is 21 and she has a reduced RBC
count. Her serum creatinine is 3.0 (normal 2.0 or below). She has a negative
pregnancy test and is a nonsmoker. Which of the following would best
explain her condition?
a. Decreased hepatic production of erythropoietin leading to decreased numbers
of circulating reticulocytes in the bloodstream
b. Increased erythropoietin production by the liver resulting in increased numbers
of reticulocytes
c. Decreased renal erythropoietin production leading to reduced red blood cell
production
d. Decreased estrogen levels stimulating hepatic production of erythropoietin
e. Decreased estrogen levels directly inhibiting red blood cell production by the
bone marrow
50 Which sequence is correct for the following events?
1. Fibrinogen --> Fibrin
2. Clot retraction
3. Formation of thromboplastin
4. Prothrombin --> Thrombin
1. 1,2,3,4
2. 3,4,1,2
3. 4,3,1,2
4. 3,2,1,4
51 Platelets:
1. Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help to seal the break
2. Have a lifespan of about 120 days
3. Are the precursors of leukocytes
4. Have multiple nuclei
5. Two of the above
52 Fred's blood type was determined to be AB+. Which of the following is true of Fred's blood?
1. There are no antibodies to antigens A, B, or Rh in the plasma
2. The RBCs contain the A and B antigens on their nuclei
3. The blood totally lacks the Rh factor
4. He cannot receive blood from someone who is type O negative
53 All of the following conditions impair coagulation except:
1. Vascular spasm
2. Vitamin K deficiency
3. Severe hypocalcaemia
4. Liver disease
54 The rarest leukocyte is the __________________.
55 When monocytes migrate into the interstitial space, they are called ________________.
56 Hemoglobin is composed of ____ polypeptide chains.
57 All leukocytes share the following characteristics except:
1. Ability to perform diapedesis
2. Disease-Fighting
3. Distorted, Lobed Nuclei
4. More active in connective tissues than in blood
58 What is the difference between a thrombus and an embolus?
1. One occurs within the cerebral bloodstream while the other does not
2. Emboli occur only once
3. An embolus cannot contribute to the occlusion of a coronary vessel while a thrombus cannot contribute to a blockage of a cranial arteriole
4. A thrombus must travel to become an embolus
59 The plasma component that forms the fibrous skeleton of a clot is:
1. Platelets
2. Fibrinogen
3. Thromboplastin
4. Thrombin
60 Rank the following in order of abundance:
1. Erythrocyte
2. Basophil
3. Monocyte
4. Platelet
1. 1,2,3,4
2. 1,4,3,2
3. 1,4,2,3
4. 1,3,4,2
61 If Jack has type O+ blood, then which of the following is true?
1. He has no agglutinins at all
2. He has no A agglutinogens
3. He has no Rh agglutinogens
4. None of the above
62 Anemia is:
1. Any condition in which the body has an abnormal oxygen carrying capacity
2. Only a genetic disorder
3. Marked by a massive increase in blood viscosity
4. Never the result of nutrient deficiency
5. 2 of the above
63 Which of the following is not involved in coagulation?
1. Gamma globulins
2. Calcium
3. Vitamin K
4. Prothrombin
64 Which of the following people would have the most anti-B antibodies?
1. An adult male with B+ blood
2. An adult male with O- blood
3. An adult female with B-blood
4. A female child with AB+ blood
65 If a newborn was blood type O+, which of the following would his blood not contain?
1. Anti-B antibodies
2. Anti-A antibodies
3. Anti-Rh antibodies
4. Erythrocytes which express neither the A nor the B antigen
66 The % of blood volume occupied by packed red blood cells is the ______________.
67 Which of the following is not true?
1. Blood is a connective tissue
2. Blood contains both a cellular and a non-cellular portion
3. None of the blood cells contain true nuclei
4. The pH of blood is typically between 7.35 and 7.45
68 In a sample of centrifuged blood, the layer immediately beneath the plasma:
1. Can contain neutrophils
2. Can contain platelets
3. Is called the buffy coat
4. All of the above
70 Water makes up what % of the plasma?
1. 90
2. 70
3. 50
4. 30
71 If you observed a white blood cell with a light microscope and noticed the presence of granules, how would you classify it?
1. Granulocyte
2. Agranulocyte
3. It could be either of the above
72 Which of the following is true of lymphocytes?
1. They contain a nucleus that occupies only a small portion of the cell
2. They are divided into T and B lymphocytes
3. The majority of them are found within the blood
4. They specific granules visible under the light microscope
5. All of the above
6. 2 of the above
73 The process by which white blood cells leave capillaries is called __________.
74 Normally, eosinophils constitute what % of white blood cells?
75 Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are all:
1. Leukocytes
2. Granulocytes
3. Phagocytes
4. All of the above
76 As the liver's ability to function decreases, yellow discoloration of the sclera __________.
77 In the blood, iron is primarily transported by:
1. Hemosiderin
2. Ferritin
3. Stercobilin
4. Transferrin
78 The stem cells that give rise to all red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are known as:
1. Hemocytoblasts
2. Reticulocytes
3. Hemophilioblasts
4. Myeloid stem cells
79 Which of the following anemia types is an example of a genetic disorder?
1. Sickle cell
2. Iron deficiency
3. Thalassemia
4. Hemorrhagic
5. 2 of the above
80 Which granulocyte is specialized for killing parasitic worms?
81 Why is vitamin B12 necessary for erythropoiesis?
1. It's necessary for the ejection of the RBC nucleus
2. It's necessary for DNA synthesis
3. It's essential for protein aggregation
4. It's essential for oxygen's nucleophilic reaction with hemoglobin
82 If you had 10 RBCs each containing 100 molecules of hemoglobin, how many molecules of oxygen could these RBCs transport?
83 Complications of aplastic anemia generally include:
1. Suppressed immunity
2. Impaired formation of all formed elements
3. Clotting deficiencies
4. All of the above
84 Which of the following females does not have to be concerned with erythroblastosis fetalis?
1. A female with blood type O-
2. A female with blood type O+
3. A female with blood type AB-
4. A female with blood type B+
5. More than one of the above
85 As the hematocrit increases, plasma erythropoietin levels will ________________.
86After receiving a transfusion of type AB blood, the plasma [bilirubin] of a type A patient will ________________.
87 As liver disease progresses, free plasma [bilirubin]...
88 As dietary vitamin K levels decrease below the recommended minimum dosage, blood clotting time...
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![](058a1680.png) The capillary tube on the far left is from Matt, the middle sample is from Gretchen (note smaller % of RBCs relative to total volume). The right tube has reddish plasma because some of the RBCs probably ruptured (hemolyzed) before entering the tube.
![](05964680.png) The capillary tubes are heparinized to prevent blood from coagulating. The tube is sealed with white clay (critoseal) & is visible at the far left of the tube. After centrifuging, the red blood cells are in the bottom & the yellowish plasma is at the top.
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